Conjugation of prever

1
vote

I saw on another site that prever (to foresee; pre + ver) is conjugated

  • preveo
  • prevés
  • prevé

And this agrees with a book I´m reading that uses the word prevés. But our conjugator here says

  • prevo
  • preves
  • preve

Is either acceptable, or is there an error on this site´s conjugation page for prever?

3056 views
updated ABR 14, 2012
edited by Lrtward
posted by Lrtward
prevés looks like voseo Spanish (vos for tú)

5 Answers

3
votes

RAE's conjugation

Presente (indicativo)

  • preveo
  • prevés
  • prevé
  • prevemos
  • prevéis / prevén
  • prevén

I would imagine that the accent marks are to make the conjugation pronunciation align with the word Ver. Being as Ver is monosyllabic, the stress is going to fall what would be the 2nd syllable in Prever so an accent mark is needed to change it from its "grave" status. It would be similar to Spanish's trying to retain stress with an accent mark when a suffix is added (ly adverbs: feminine adjective+mente). Here we are adding a prefix rather than a suffix, but I think they are trying to maintain consistent stress placement.

updated ABR 15, 2012
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
I need to learn to use that site. Me confunde. Gracias!
The use of the tilde makes sense, otherwise the emphasis would fall on the prefix "pre". It seems it wants the emphasis to stay on the ver part of the conjugation and not shift to the prefix.
What about entrever, rever, etc.? Those verbs also follow the ver structure, and have two syllables, yet they have no accent above the e..
Someone always has to come up with an argument to ruin what seems like a good intuitive reasoning! Don't confuse me with facts.
Doesn't "entrevé" have an accent over the final "e"?
(referring to 3 posts up)
I don't believe so. I just checked a few different site's conjugations for confirmation, including spanishdict's, and none put an accent above the last e
2
votes

Maybe it depends on what tense you are trying to use it in? I don't know, but that seems like it would make the difference here... I'm an English speaker however, so hopefully someone else can shed more light on it for you. Good luck!

updated ABR 14, 2012
posted by megan5
2
votes

I could have sworn that I learned that the conjugation for prever is derived from the conjugation for ver, meaning that the set that includes -(pre)veo -(pre)vés and -(pre)vé would be correct... however, the presence of the accent above the e nullifies that notion. It doesn't really seem to fit with any of the usual patterns of conjugation, so I'd wager that the conjugation is actually

  • preveo
  • preves
  • preve etc.

Maybe? I'd appreciate it if someone better versed in these matters could enlighten us.

updated ABR 14, 2012
posted by Gravemarker
1
vote

Microsoft Word Recognizes your version to be words, while this sites version to be incorrect.

updated MAY 11, 2010
posted by brt2me
Ah, the question then becomes... do I trust Microsoft to know Spanish? :)
0
votes

Moved this from "vocabulary" to "website" category because now I want to report an error in our conjugator. big surprise

updated MAY 11, 2010
posted by Lrtward
¡Oye!, LeslieW - Here is a conjugator that accepts both/either "http://tools.verbix.com/webverbix/Spanish.html?verb=irse&imageField;.x=9&imageField;.y=10"
Alas, Moe, now I am confused again!