Preterit (Simple Past), Irregular - is the description fully correct?
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Like a good student I have been studying my verbs in the excellent reference section of SpanishDict. When I got to the 'somewhat irregulars' the description says that the relevant verbs follow the conjugation endings for -ER and -IR verbs, without tildes (even if an -AR verb). But when I checked the endings, the statement seems true except for the first person singular and third person singular conjugations, which seem to follow the -AR conjugations without tildes. Am I correct, or am I missing something?
1365 views
updated May 6, 2010
posted by aussiebmh
Ah, now that I have got to the end of the material I see someone else has already mentioned this. - aussiebmh, May 6, 2010
1 Answer
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I would love to help but I don't understand your question. Could you maybe give an example?
updated May 6, 2010
posted by sunshinzmommie
