object pronouns with past participle
Is it grammatically correct to attach indirect and direct pronouns to past participles? Example Yo habia escritole.
No it is not. Yo have to say "yo le había escrito." You can attach it to infinitives and present participles only.
Because RID pronouns may be attached to the present participle form of the verb, many mistakenly do the same with a past participle. RID pronouns are never attached to a past participle; they go in front of the conjugated form of haber, which will precede the past participle to create the perfect tenses:
- Guada lo ha practicado toda la noche.
- Guada has practiced it all night.
I'm starting up ADV. Spanish speaking/writing/reading next semester and just went over this about 2 weeks ago.
As a rule, object pronouns precede the conjugated verb haber. Only place to put it.
Hope this helps.
From what I have learned, object pronouns can be attached to any unconjugated verb. So it is ok to do with infinitives, present and past participles. Also in my opinion, when spoken, he tomádolos sounds much better than Los he tomado. It sounds right and is almost identical to the situation with tomándolos
Hi, Chickie - Welcome to the forum.
I have an extremely vague memory of having seen that sort of structure pop up in conjunction with Spanish from several centuries ago. On the other hand, I am not positive about that.
Clearly it is not comtemporary Spanish...
Welcome to the forum, chicke, good question
I've never seen/heard it done that way - Yo le había escrito