How to say order someone to do something

Question

On this site it says that to order somebody to do something would be mandar a alguien hacer algo. However it says to command someone to do something is mandar a alguien que haga algo. Why are there two different versions of basically the same thing? Also, would the above examples use direct or indirect object pronouns?

Answer 1

Sorry, my academic language is not so good. Do you mean whether "mandar a alguien a hacer algo" and "mandar a alguien a que haga algo" are both correct? If so, the answer is yes. Both are correct and exchangeable.

yes that´s waht i meant, thanks. Mandar a alguien que haga algo is the same as mandar a alguien hacer algo. - isonder, May 2, 2010

Answer 2

So the difference is the subjunctive mood used when you have an additional clause (signaled by "que") in the second sentence; mandar is a "trigger verb", or a verb that requires the use of the subjunctive. However, the first example avoids the use of the subjunctive by using a verb in an infitive, rather than containing an additional clause. I know this is kind of complicated if you haven't been introduced to the subjunctive, but here are some examples that may (or may not) help you:

Le mandó a su amigo llevarlo. - [Someone] commanded [his/her] friend to carry it.

Le mandó a su amigo que lo lleve. - [Someone] commanded that [his/her] friend carry it.

Me mandó hacerlo. - [Someone] commanded me to do it.

Me mandó que yo lo haga. - [Someone] commanded that I do it.

Good luck!

Gracias!! I was wondering why it seemed you could use both infinitive nad subjunctive for so long. - isonder, May 2, 2010

Answer 3

Mandar a alguien hacer algo is the infinitive form.

The ...haga algo is the subjunctive form of hacer. It's needed because mandates require the subjunctive.

If I want you to do something, I could say:

Mando que haga la tarea. I 'm telling you to do your homework.

I'm sure that there is a place on this site that explains to you when to use this. Maybe someone can tell you exactly where it is. I haven't found everything yet.

but are both the infinitive and subjunctive forms correct? - isonder, May 2, 2010

Answer 4

Well, both things are pretty much synonims in English also, aren't they?

"I order you to bring me a chocolate milkshake with a cherry on top"

"I command you to bring me a chocolate milkshake with a cherry on top"

What's the difference?

In Spanish we don't really have a direct-word translation for "command". Command and order are both translated as "ordenar" /"mandar". And "mandar" is not really used as a verb in the same was as "ordenar": You can say: "Te ordeno que me traigas una malteada de chocolate", but not "Te mando que me traigas una malteada de chololate".

Why? I don't know. Just sounds horribly weird to me.

sorry, i know order and command are synonyms, but I meant why does one construction use the indicative and the other one use the subjuntive - isonder, May 2, 2010