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agradar, les agradas

agradar, les agradas

1
vote

This is they please you right? Les agradas. Me agradas I please you. Te agrado. (Ag RA do?) You please me? Gracias.

6031 views
updated Jul 6, 2010
posted by jeezzle
exactly the opposite, this is just like gustar. - 00494d19, May 27, 2010

7 Answers

1
vote

Incógnito - Creo que LES es la respuesta correcta (objeto indirecto). En los ejemplos anteriores, las oraciones ya no han estado terminados por el hablante...

Les agrado el trabajo que yo hago (a ellos).

updated May 27, 2010
posted by AndyHenry
"Les *agrada* el trabajo quer yo hago" - Gekkosan, May 27, 2010
1
vote

Les agradas = you please them. Me agradas = you please me. Te agrado = I please you.

although I think the Les should be los (direct object instead of indirect object)?

updated May 27, 2010
edited by Incógnito
posted by Incógnito
0
votes

De acuerdo con mi maestro de Español en Guatemala, a continuación van varios ejemplos:

Les agrada el trabajo que yo hago.

Les agrado por mi forma de trabajar.

Le agradan las obras de Orozco.

Me agrada el teatro.

Les agradé porque yo trabajaba fuerte y sin parar.

updated Jul 6, 2010
edited by AndyHenry
posted by AndyHenry
0
votes

anyway, Quen, I don't think he was trying to say that, I think he was using the word agradar just like gustar, but wrongly interpreted.

Me agradas = (Me gustas) I please you. confused You please megrin

Tú agradas a mí. Tú gustas a mí. = You are liked by me. = I like you

This is not correct, but it would be this in essence, this is not for you, quen, but for Jeez.

I don't see the use of agradar as transitive. As a matter of fact it is listed as intransitive.

updated May 27, 2010
posted by 00494d19
0
votes

Heidita,

He meant that Jeezle didn't show the entire sentence so that you weren't seeing the d.o. and therefore understanding why an i.o.p. was being used. I don't think he realized that the verb could be used intransitively without a direct object

Notice in his example he tried to add a d.o. which none of the previous examples had. He was trying to make a transitive sentence with "the work que.." being a d.o. and i.o.p. les for para ellos. Of course, his sentence is incorrect and he actually added a subject to an intransitive sentence; not a d.o., but I knew what he was trying to do and what point that he was trying to make. His sentence is incorrect, for either a transitive or intransitive sentence, but I was trying to read between the lines.

At least, I think that was the point he was making. Since the sentence is incorrect, it's hard to be certain. I think that it was suppose the be: "They appreciate the work that I do them. You have to view it from an English perspective and forget about how Spanish would use an intransitive sentence to say it.

They =subj.

appreciated=verb

the work that I did=complement (d.o.)

[for] them=i.o.

That's not quite correct even in English, but I think that was the intention.

So what I thought his original point was is that Jeezle was only proving a sentence frament and not showing the d.o. like he did which makes the use of an i.o..p. seem clear.

Or else I was totally off base, and wrote an answer that was meaningless. At least, I got the gustar-like part correct so I'll move my stool a little farther from the wall in the dunce corner.

updated May 27, 2010
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
jeje, the dunce corner has a new member, issa, she used estar wrongly today, unforgivable!! - 00494d19, May 27, 2010
0
votes

En los ejemplos anteriores, las oraciones ya no han estado terminados por el hablante...

Quentin, did you understand this sentencebig surprise What did he mean?

updated May 27, 2010
posted by 00494d19
0
votes

En los ejemplos anteriores, las oraciones ya no han estado terminados por el hablante...

Are you, perhaps, confusing agradar with agradecer (transitive verb)?

agradar can be used both transitively and intransitively. There does not need to be a direct object in the sentence. (as in your example). Transitive sentences would explain the use of i.o.p.'s, but it doesn't explain which object pronoun to use in an intransitive sentence. (well by definition there is no d.o.; so no d.o.p.)

Incógnito seems to be referring to intransitive sentences (gustar-like). If so, don't forget that gustar, encantar, etc. uses an i.o.p., not a d.o.p.

updated May 27, 2010
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507