Home
Q&A
¿Te vas a quedar aqui tu sola?

¿Te vas a quedar aqui tu sola?

0
votes

Are you going to stay (why no SE? ) here alone? Tu sola = alone, is tu needed? Is this right? Gracias.

3676 views
updated May 3, 2010
posted by jeezzle

8 Answers

1
vote

You could dispense with the "tú", but it adds a nice note of emphasis. A bit like saying: "Are you staying here by your lonely self?"

updated May 3, 2010
posted by Gekkosan
1
vote

So I think I know what you are asking, but I am a little confused as well.

"¿Te vas a quedar aqui tu sola?"

So you want to no why there is no "te" (or se, nos, etc) at the end of "quedar"? I believe it is because it has been relocated to the front of the sentence... the "te" in "te vas" is that of "quedarte".

I may be wrong here, but I don't think the first verb is "irse", I think it is just "ir", and the "te" belongs to "quedarse".

Let me know if that makes sense.

updated May 2, 2010
posted by aceydoubleyou
IF that is case, it solves it. Gracias. - jeezzle, May 2, 2010
De nada. Hopefully a native will let us know for sure. But I believe the two places you can put the "te" are at the end of "quedar" or at the front of the first verb, like it is here. - aceydoubleyou, May 2, 2010
Yes, you are right. - Gekkosan, May 2, 2010
1
vote

You could also say- Quedaras (with an accent on the a) aqui ( accent on the i) sola? I believe it is a shorter way to say this.

updated May 2, 2010
posted by reinitabonita
In that case it would have to be "TE quedarás aquí sola?" - Gekkosan, May 2, 2010
1
vote

But why wouldn't it be "Vas a quedarte aquí tu sola" I don't get the SE in IR and the lack of SE in quedar. Gracias.

I'm not sure I understand your question.

SE is the formal way:

(usted) Quedarse, irse.

Informal:

(Tú) Quedartte, Irte.

Does that make sense?

updated May 2, 2010
posted by Gekkosan
0
votes

Or to put it slightly differently, "ir" is present as an auxiliary verb to the principal verb "quedarse". In this case "te vas" is almost exactly the same as the English "you are going (to)" and as someone said up there, the "te" belongs to "quedar(te)" but is translated to the beginning of the sentence to give the best balance between the verb form and the necessary emphasis.

I've been thinking about this over dinner while I ate my tilapia and drank my chardonnay so if you don't like the result I don't think I care a lot. I reckon it's a pretty good explanation.

updated May 2, 2010
posted by geofc
0
votes

Ok, to expand my example with the feedback provided by Aceydoubleyo:

SE is the formal way:

(usted) Quedarse, irse.

¿Se va a quedar?, ¿Se va a ir?

Informal:

(Tú) Quedarte, Irte.

¿Te vas a quedar?, ¿te vas a ir?

updated May 2, 2010
posted by Gekkosan
0
votes

But why wouldn't it be "Vas a quedarte aquí tu sola" I don't get the SE in IR and the lack of SE in quedar. Gracias.

updated May 2, 2010
posted by jeezzle
Well the "se" on quedarse is the "te" at the end. - reinitabonita, May 2, 2010
You mean at the beginning? What te at the end - jeezzle, May 2, 2010
When you say "quedarte" the "se" on quedarse turns to "te" because you're talking informally to someone. I'm sorry I hope I'm giving you the answer you need - reinitabonita, May 2, 2010
0
votes

I'm just saying say because the forms are Quedar VS QuedarSE (which is quedarme, quedarte, quedarse, quedarnos) but the original line had to te or se or me or nos, so it seems like a different verb IE to locate not to remain. Gracias.

updated May 2, 2010
posted by jeezzle