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confusion over le as direct object

confusion over le as direct object

11
votes

Why is it le creo and not lo creo for I believe him? Also, why is it le animo (I encourage him)? Does someone have a faily comprehensive list of verbs that require le when in English we would use a direct object? Are their rules governing when this occurs?

15685 views
updated Jun 15, 2014
posted by isonder
Super question. :) Have a vote on me! - galsally, Apr 30, 2010

8 Answers

11
votes

My understanding is that "le" is only meant to be used as an indirect object, which usually only refers to people (masculine OR feminine) and sometimes pets since the gender is ambiguous. Using "le" as a direct object instead of "lo" is leísmo. As far as I've learned, an indirect object can't exist unless there is a direct object in the same sentence. So if anything is receiving the benefit of the action, it is the direct object even if it is a person.

Towards the bottom of this webpage, Direct Object Pronouns there are some great examples where the direct object is a person.

So with those verbs like llamar, creer, amar, animar, ver, conocer, etc. in which the object receiving the action of the verb happens to be a person, you should really use the direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las. Here are some examples: "Lo creí cuando me contó la historia." [I believed him when he told me the story.] "Voy a llamarla en la mañana." [I'll call her in the morning.] "El profesor los animó a estudiar." [The professor encouraged them to study. It's easy to get mixed up though, and slowly the spoken language changes. That's why in some places, people are used to using the indirect objects with certain verbs.

However, with verbs like, gustar, importar, interesar, emocionar, etc.you should always use the indirect object pronouns: me, te, le, nos, os, les. With these types of verbs, you could say the subject/object of the verb is functioning like the direct object in the sentence. I say "subject" because the verb conjugates according to it. "Le gusta el helado." [She/He likes ice cream.] More Verbs like Gustar. Indirect objects are never the subject of a sentence. There doesn't strictly have to be a direct object though, but an infinitive verb instead: "Me gusta traducir." [I like to translate. Or literally, Translating is pleasing to me.].

updated Oct 4, 2017
edited by Stardust2212
posted by Stardust2212
Sorry for the long explanation, but I hope that helps. - Stardust2212, Apr 30, 2010
ea ! - 00494d19, Apr 30, 2010
Gracias por eso enlace útil. :) - galsally, Apr 30, 2010
7
votes

Why is it le creo and not lo creo for I believe him? Also, why is it le animo (I encourage him)?

Hi Isonder, welome to the forumgrin

Actually it isn'twink

Lo creo.

Lo animo.

Thy are direct objects and should carry the lo pronoun.

However, as sturdust has explained, the "le" used as a direct object when talking about men, is "accepted" in Penunsular Spanish. I think we have used it wrongly such a long time, that the Royal Academy finally chose to "accept" it , it is not correct thoughwink

updated Jun 2, 2014
posted by 00494d19
lol, not sturdust! :) - Stardust2212, Apr 30, 2010
jeje, sorry, I am famous for my typos - 00494d19, Apr 30, 2010
very famous indeed - Mark-Baker, Apr 30, 2010
4
votes

As far as I've learned, an indirect object can't exist unless there is a direct object in the same sentence.

That is an English language concept. It doesn't exist in Spanish. Spanish loves using the indirect object pronoun in intransitive sentences. Your own examples of gustar-like verbs is a typical example. And the subject of those sentences correspond to what would be the direct object in the English translation, but it is in no way a direct object in Spanish.

Another common example are pronominal sentences where the "detransitizing" se is used.

  • Se me olvidaron los libros. I forgot the books.
  • ¿Se te perdieron las llaves? Did you lose the keys?
  • Sí, se me cayeron ayer. Yes, I dropped them yesterday.

Like the gustar-like intransitive sentences, what is the direct object in the English sentence is the subject in the Spanish sentence, there is an indirect object pronoun, a reflexive pronoun, and no direct object pronoun.

The books are forgotten to me. (intransitive sentence)

updated May 2, 2010
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
My Spanish professor from Mexico told the class that an indirect object can't exist unless there is a direct object in the same sentence, but that would only apply to cluauses with a transitive verb, right? - Stardust2212, Apr 30, 2010
what about gustar, etc? also, mandar, etc. - isonder, May 2, 2010
3
votes

Despite the rough association, it is not as simple as "Le is for people and lo is for things." The easiest way to find out which object pronoun to use is to look the word up in the dictionary, where it will tell you what sort of verb it is (transitive or intransitive). The dictionary on this site writes it in bold green letters above the definitions. Then, apply the following rule:

Transitive verbs take a direct object; intransitive verbs do not. (When they take one, they take indirect object pronouns.)

Direct object pronouns are: me, te, lo/la, nos, os, los/las. Indirect object pronouns are: me, te, le, nos, os, les Leísmo is the practice of using le instead of lo to indicate politeness. For example, saludar (to greet) is a transitive verb, and therefore uses a direct object pronoun (lo). However, it is common, especially in Spain, to write le saluda. (Ending saluda with the letter A is another thing, which also indicates respect. It’s like “you are greeted” instead of “I greet you.”)

Animar and creer are both transitive verbs, which means that they must take direct object pronouns. You have probably seen them with indirect object pronouns (le, etc) because of leísmo. Though this usage is common and accepted, it is not strictly correct, or at least it didn't use to be. It has become accepted because everyone does it, at least in Spain.

updated May 2, 2010
edited by MacFadden
posted by MacFadden
that is not what intransitive verbs mean, intransitive verbs can have no object at all. - isonder, May 2, 2010
You make a good point. I should have specified that they take indirect object pronouns WHEN they take pronouns, and that they do not always. - MacFadden, May 2, 2010
2
votes

Welcome to ¡LEISMO!

Lo/La are direct object pronouns for people. According to "leísmo", now accepted by RAE, "LE" can be used to replace "LO" but only for a singular man. That is to say, you cannot replaced LOS with LES, nor can you replace LA with LE. I learned this in a grammar class at University of Salamanca and this is also validated here: http://www.rae.es/consultas/uso-de-los-pronombres-los-las-les-leismo-laismo-loismo

The idea that LE and LES can be used for "people " whenever you want, is apparently not true, even though we want it to be.

"Le creo" could also mean that "I believe the words coming from his mouth" while "Lo creo" could refer to something more general, not what he is saying. I share this with you because I asked the same exact question several years ago to my professor in Spain because it was driving me nuts. She gave me that explanation.

updated Oct 4, 2017
edited by Mrs_White_in_the_Study
posted by Mrs_White_in_the_Study
Thank you. It drives me nuts too... - annierats, Jun 2, 2014
2
votes

Transitive verbs take a direct object; intransitive verbs take indirect object pronouns.

I have always wondered about the sentence "Te quiero," whether the te is an indirect object or a direct object. It's good to know now that it's a direct object pronoun, as querer is a transitive verb.

updated May 3, 2010
posted by Goyo
I know, me too! I had always just played it by ear with the whole indirect/direct object pronoun thing; I was so pleased when I found the rule! - MacFadden, Apr 30, 2010
ok, but in english you say i order him, him is direct object, in spanis it is le mando I believe, which is indirect object, so what is direct in english is not necessarily so in spanish - isonder, May 2, 2010
1
vote

Le is for masculine people and Lo is for masculine things. Occasionally you will hear Lo used for people, but Le is the proper way. It's the same situation for Ceer and Animar.

updated May 2, 2010
posted by 005faa61
um, le is not for maculine people all the time, that's le'ismo. Lo amo= I love him. Lo ayudo. etc. - isonder, Apr 29, 2010
Pimsleur would disagree. Lo and la or direct objects for people and Le is indirect for people. Sometimes in Spain Le is used as a direct object, and also there is leismo that makes le seem ok to use whenever you want, and still be somewhat correct. - jeezzle, Apr 29, 2010
my friend from argentina does not agree with you... - isonder, May 2, 2010
0
votes

I was under the impression le was sued for verbs of speaking

le mando, le pregunto, le hablo, etc. as well, with the implicit direct object being the thing being said. Maybe animar is this type of verb?

Also, according to this site, you see lo creo for I believe it, but le creo for I blieve him or her. Maybe because le creo is really I believe it of or to him or her.

updated May 2, 2010
posted by isonder