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General Rule?

General Rule?

0
votes

Is it a general rule that if you have two verbs next to each other that the second verb would be in the infinitive? Like, "puedes verlo" or the likes. And so if this is true if you were to say "You make me laugh", would laugh be in the infinitive?

1445 views
updated Apr 8, 2010
edited by 20003425-
posted by 20003425-

4 Answers

0
votes

Well it would be "me haces reir" and reir is in the infinitive. I think that's how you spell laugh in spanish. Anyways umm I haven't heard that one before but come to think of it I can't think of anything where the second verb isn't in the infinitive when you put two together..

updated Apr 7, 2010
posted by Vince_Peña
3
votes

The first verb splits into the conjugation, the other one or two don't. Me haces reir, no me hagas reir. You're pretty much onto it. The first conjugates, the second or third don't.

updated Apr 8, 2010
posted by jeezzle
1
vote

All the compound tenses are two verbs, with the second as a past participle.

Te has salido de los límites. : You have exceeded the limits.

He sido gordo. I have been fat.

Ellos han leído periodicos toda la tarde. They have read newspapers all day.

updated Apr 8, 2010
posted by Goyo
Thanks, Goyo. I was wondering if anyone would mention this. - h1deaway, Apr 8, 2010
0
votes

Some alternative situations.... "I prefer to do it"....Prefiero hacerlo. However if you prefer that someone else should do it........Prefiero que el lo haga / tú lo hagas etc. Here the present subjunctive is used. So in this example both verbs are in fact conjugated. In English it can be said: "I prefer you to do it". This is not good grammar but is widely used.... but in Spanish this is not acceptable.

This construction is used a lot in Spanish when the subject of the two verbs is different. "I will make sure he does it..." Haré que lo haga.

updated Apr 8, 2010
edited by aeroplod
posted by aeroplod
"I prefer that you do it! is better English. - ian-hill, Apr 8, 2010