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¿Cómo dicen que "Girls like you "?

¿Cómo dicen que "Girls like you "?

2
votes

¿Es está corecta decir "Las chicas se gustas" para "Girls like you"?

I am trying to figure out the usage of "me gusta".It means something pleases me. That's why we are using third person singular for the verb gustar.

And in my sentence it should be translated as "you please the girls". Therefore the verb gustar should be conjugated for the second person singular right(gustas)?

And "se" is indirect object pronoun for girls? But somehow I know this doesn't sound right! Ayudame por favor!

1884 views
updated Nov 21, 2010
edited by neslita
posted by neslita

5 Answers

3
votes

Remember sentence structure is different in Spanish.

In English literally the sentence would be - "to the girls you please them"

A las chicas te les gusta

The verb gustar is special and is only ever conjugated to the 3rd person singular or plural depending on that object that pleases. (GustA or GustAN)

And the who it pleases goes in front. So for them (girls) it is LES gusta.

And the object of pleasing is YOU. So it is TE les gusta. (You please them)

Hope this helps.

updated Nov 21, 2010
edited by pablopimiento
posted by pablopimiento
Oh, I'm keen on this :) - Fidalgo, Apr 7, 2010
This is not the correct answer.. - culé, Nov 21, 2010
3
votes

I think "A las chicas les gustas (tú)"

updated Dec 11, 2010
posted by Fidalgo
2
votes

se is used instead of les when it is used as an indirect object pronoun before lo, la, los, las (se lo dije I said it to them; dáselo give it to them). 1. (complemento indirecto) (to) them (ellos); (to) you (ustedes) •les expliqué el motivo -> I explained the reason to them •les tengo miedo -> I'm afraid of them •ya les dije lo que pasaría -> I told you what would happen (a ustedes)

Copyright © 2006 Chambers Harrap Publishers Limited

(Looking up our dictionay for "les")

updated Dec 11, 2010
posted by Fidalgo
0
votes

The verb gustar is special and is only ever conjugated to the 3rd person singular or plural depending on that object that pleases. (GustA or GustAN)

I didn't know that but then why does it have conjugation for all persons? Such as gustamos,gustas etc.

Thanks!

updated Apr 7, 2010
posted by neslita
0
votes

I think "A las chicas les gustas (tú)"

What does that "a" provide?

updated Apr 7, 2010
posted by neslita
similar to this thread http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/134446/how-is-a-m-translated - Fidalgo, Apr 7, 2010