What is spanish for 'I ate the pineapple'
Earlier I asked whether the translation for 'I ate the pineapple' should be 'Comí la piña' or 'Me comí la piña'. Answers suggested either could be correct. But it seems the second translation is preferred. However, I couldn't reason why 'me' was required. I have been re-reading the lessons on pronouns and it seems that the 'me' is an indirect pronoun. The readings suggest that the indirect object is often implied rather than explicit. Thus the spanish grammar for the sentence would probably be 'I ate the pineapple for me'. 'the pineapple' is the direct object pronoun and 'for me' is the indirect pronoun. Thus 'me comí la piña is likely to be the more correct spanish translation. Is my reasoning sensible??
2 Answers
Comí la piña. I ate the pineapple (but perhaps left some for the rest of the family).
Me comí la piña. I ate the pineapple (the whole thing, and they will have to buy their own).
In this case, Comí la piña is correct.
Me comí la piña would be, I ate myself the pinapple.
Examples,
Me bañé......... I bathed myself.
Me fuí........... I left or I took myself away.
Me maté........... I killed myself.
Me comí......... I ate myself.
