HomeQ&AWhat is spanish for 'I ate the pineapple'

What is spanish for 'I ate the pineapple'

1
vote

Earlier I asked whether the translation for 'I ate the pineapple' should be 'Comí la piña' or 'Me comí la piña'. Answers suggested either could be correct. But it seems the second translation is preferred. However, I couldn't reason why 'me' was required. I have been re-reading the lessons on pronouns and it seems that the 'me' is an indirect pronoun. The readings suggest that the indirect object is often implied rather than explicit. Thus the spanish grammar for the sentence would probably be 'I ate the pineapple for me'. 'the pineapple' is the direct object pronoun and 'for me' is the indirect pronoun. Thus 'me comí la piña is likely to be the more correct spanish translation. Is my reasoning sensible??

2658 views
updated ABR 1, 2010
posted by aussiebmh
I don´t think so but ... wait for better answers. - ian-hill, ABR 1, 2010

2 Answers

2
votes

Comí la piña. I ate the pineapple (but perhaps left some for the rest of the family).

Me comí la piña. I ate the pineapple (the whole thing, and they will have to buy their own).

updated ABR 1, 2010
posted by tennismom
We have some previous threads on this pronominal meaning of "completeness" by Lazarus if you search. - 0074b507, ABR 1, 2010
1
vote

In this case, Comí la piña is correct.

Me comí la piña would be, I ate myself the pinapple.

Examples,

Me bañé......... I bathed myself.

Me fuí........... I left or I took myself away.

Me maté........... I killed myself.

Me comí......... I ate myself.

updated ABR 1, 2010
edited by 005faa61
posted by 005faa61
Could that be "I myself ate the pineapple" ?? - ian-hill, ABR 1, 2010
Yo sólo comí la piña. - 005faa61, ABR 1, 2010
Or, ' I ate the pineapple myself'. The examples cited by Julian appear to be reflexive, but I don't think 'me' in the context of 'me comí la piña' is reflexive. So I figure it must be an indirect object pronoun. What do you think? - aussiebmh, ABR 1, 2010
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