Placement of object pronouns

Question

Hi! I know that when using progressive tenses or when a conjugated verb is followed by an infinitive the speaker has a choice of where to place object pronouns — ¿Me estás amenazando? vs. ¿Estás amenazándome?, "No te voy a amar nunca" vs. "No voy a amarte nunca". However, in watching Spanish-language television (specifically, from Mexico), I've noticed that most native speakers seem to prefer the first style ("No te voy a amar nunca") and use the second style ("No voy a amarte nunca") much less frequently. Is there a reason for this? Does "No voy a amarte nunca" sound slightly more awkward or foreign even though it's grammatically correct? Are there differences in connotation between "No te voy a amar nunca" and "No voy a amarte nunca"? Or is it really all just a matter of preference?

Thank you in advance for your help!

Answer 1

Preference / personal style