American v. European Spanish grammar

Question

I'm assembling a list of grammatical differences between Old World and New World Spanish. Two examples that I've found so far are:

Direct object for 'him' - 'le' in Spain, 'lo' in the Western Hemisphere.

Second person, familiar plural - Not used in the Western Hemisphere (except a limited 'vos' construction in Argentina).

Are there other grammatical differences?

Answer 1

"vos" is familiar singular (for the plural the Argintinians, like the rest of Latin America, use "ustedes"). The use of "le" as a direct object pronoun is characteristic of only part of Spain (most notably, Madrid).

For a much more comprehensive discussion of regional differences (grammatical as well as in pronunciation) see the material at regional differences in Latin America. This link was recently provided by Benz and, although it doesn't discuss the usages in Spain, for Latin America, it provides the best overview that I've ever seen.

Answer 2

Thanks for the link.