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Impersonal Commands...some help

Impersonal Commands...some help

1
vote

Entender los comandos impersonal es importante para avanzar al siguiente nivel. El 'golpéelo con dos E, tiene un aspecto extraño. ¿Tiene el acento que sea aceptable? De referencia?

Thanks for the help.

"Hurry, hit him with this!" ¡Apresúrese, golpéelo con esto!

5532 views
updated Mar 19, 2010
posted by MattM

5 Answers

1
vote

There's no such thing as an impersonal command. Commands are always directed at some (real or imagined) listener (2nd person sing/plural). Some people also refer to forms such as "vámanos as a 1st pers. plu. command but the traditional terminology is "hortatory subjunctive."

updated Mar 18, 2010
posted by samdie
2
votes

If the default syllable is the one that is stressed in a particular, then there is no tilde (written accent mark). If some other syllable is stressed, that is indicated by a tilde.

True, but that doesn't help you at all to know where to put the stress if it is other than the "default" syllable.

The simplest way to explain it with commands if to find where the word is stressed before the pronoun(s) is/are attached and maintain the accent there by adding an accent mark if needed after the pronoun(s) are appended.

golpear

formal command

golpee (stress on the first "e"...grave)

add the pronoun

golpeelo (the "default syllable would now be the 2nd "e", but we want to conserve the stress on the 1st "e" so an accent mark is needed.

golpéelo

Decir

informal command

di ("default" syllable has accent over the "i")

dime

No tilde needed after appending the pronoun "me" since the grave word still has the stress on the "i".

dímelo.

an accent mark is needed to maintain the stress on the "i" after appending me and lo to the verb. dimelo being grave and would have the stress above the "e" by "default".

updated Mar 19, 2010
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
1
vote

Reference --> Grammar --> Pronunciation --> Stress

Questions of stress/accent marks are not affected by whether or not the word is a command (or any other verb form). There is a "default" position (syllable) that is stressed and the default depends on the final letter of the word. If the default syllable is the one that is stressed in a particular, then there is no tilde (written accent mark). If some other syllable is stressed, that is indicated by a tilde.

P.S. There is a handful of words (exceptions) that has a tilde for reasons of disambiguation, rather than stress.

updated Mar 19, 2010
posted by samdie
0
votes

Thanks for the feedback. Coincidently I'm on section 4.10 Flowers, Accents & Tildes. Need to run it a few more times and find some other references. I see where it's going and what you folks are describing. Probablemente tenga más preguntas. Thanks again in advance!

updated Mar 19, 2010
posted by MattM
0
votes

Sorry, I meant formal command..como "siéntense aquí". The confusing part is when to use the accent. It looks like apresurar is conjugated to the 3rd person Present Subjunctive mood and used as an Impersonal Construction. I thought I read somewhere on SpanishDict that an accent mark is placed on the last vowel before the Object Pronoun added to the conjugated verb?

updated Mar 18, 2010
posted by MattM