¨Pretérito perfecto de subjuntivo (2)¨

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I noticed in a Spanish novel i´m reading (Pauhlo Cohleo, amazing!) a conjugacion form i havent seen before.... eg. tener - tuviese etc . i tried googling it, but the only useful thing i could find was a site calling it ¨Pretérito perfecto de subjuntivo (2)¨ but with no explanation. How do you form this tense and when do you use it? Answers asap would be much apreciated! Muchas gracias en adelante

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updated MAR 10, 2010
posted by Nomes

2 Answers

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oh okay, so you can use either/or ? Or does it depend on the country or something like that?

updated MAR 10, 2010
posted by Nomes
Either is possible but the #1 forms are much more common in speech. Country is not much of a factor.
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You can find the endings (for any particular verb) in our conjugation section (imperfect subjunctive). The two variants given there (labeled #1 & #2) are functionally equivalent (though #1 is the more often used). Historically, they were different but not any more.

updated MAR 9, 2010
posted by samdie