¨Pretérito perfecto de subjuntivo (2)¨
I noticed in a Spanish novel i´m reading (Pauhlo Cohleo, amazing!) a conjugacion form i havent seen before.... eg. tener - tuviese etc . i tried googling it, but the only useful thing i could find was a site calling it ¨Pretérito perfecto de subjuntivo (2)¨ but with no explanation. How do you form this tense and when do you use it? Answers asap would be much apreciated! Muchas gracias en adelante
oh okay, so you can use either/or ? Or does it depend on the country or something like that?
You can find the endings (for any particular verb) in our conjugation section (imperfect subjunctive). The two variants given there (labeled #1 & #2) are functionally equivalent (though #1 is the more often used). Historically, they were different but not any more.