When you say Traelo does the a get an accent

Question

When you say Traelo does the a get an accent

Answer 1

Yes, it gets an accent mark because "tráelo" has three syllables: "trá-e-lo".

Answer 2

I think the RAE, the language police, would say trae (2nd per. sing. command) has no diphthong and is two syllables, tra-e, with natural stress on the first syllable. When you add the object pronoun, you need an accent to keep the stress trá-e-lo. ¡Bring it!

Voseo Spanish is spoken in parts of South America (http://www.voseospanish.com/). Among other things, it impacts your exact issue, the 2nd per. sing. command. In voseo Spanish, the command is tra-é. Adding the object pronoun would eliminate the need for the accent mark, as the natural stress would fall on the next to last syllable, tra-e-lo. However, voseo keeps the unneeded accect mark (http://study-spanish-language.com/grammar/conjugating-vos/), tra-é-lo, perhaps to distinguish the command from some other word.

Answer 3

Yes, it does. The "a" has an accent:

The word tráelo has two syllables:

TRáe-Lo

The first syllable has a hiatus formed by two strong vocals: AE, and the first vocal gets the accent.

There are two pronunciations of tráelo. Argentinians pronounce this word with the accent in the vocal "e": TRaé-Lo.

Proofreading is accepted

Should that answer be flagged so it isn't accidentally accepted ? I'm voting you up so your answer is read first. - 0074b507, MAR 6, 2010

Answer 4

No, it doesn´t. Because you write traé, and then you add lo, so it´s traélo

But you do not write traé. The informal 2nd person, singular, affirmative command is trae (no tilde). Since the word trae is grave the stress falls on the "a". When you add the pronoun it would be tráelo to maintain the stress on the "a" or it would fall on the "e" since the word traelo is grave also. (tra-e-lo no diphthong formed since there are two strong vowels)

Note:

forming the affirmative command in voseo Spanish:

In most other tenses the verb forms are the same, except for the affirmative vos command. That form is simply the infinitive without the r and with the vowel of the infinitve ending stressed with a written accent if it's more than one syllable or would otherwise need an accent.

So traé would be correct affirmative command in voseo Spanish.

But would it be traélo or just traelo since that puts the accent on the "e" without having to use an accent mark. ( or is this one of those situation like Spanish has for keeping tildes when making adjectives into adverbs (+mente).

Interesting question, no matter what.

It seems the answer may depend on whether you are discussing Castilian or voseo Spanish. - 0074b507, MAR 6, 2010

Answer 5

No, it doesn´t. Because you write traé, and then you add lo, so it´s traélo

You should add that this is voseo Spanish since that's not what is usually assumed here. - 0074b507, MAR 6, 2010