Help with understanding "dame"

0
votes

Carlos Baute has a song called "Dame De Eso" and a part of the lyrics are "dame, dame de eso, dame más" As best I can tell "da" would be the imperative or present indicative conjugate of dar and "me" would be the indirect object personal pronoun.

So why is it "dame" one word and not "me da" two words with the personal pronoun first? I'm sure I'm missing something simple here.

1733 views
updated MAR 3, 2010
posted by jacob4408

3 Answers

2
votes

In imperatives, the direct and indirect objects are tacked onto the end of the verb.

¡Dámelo! = da + me + lo = Give me it! or Give me that!

updated MAR 3, 2010
posted by webdunce
perfect
in affirmative commands; not negative ones
2
votes

HI jacob, dame is give me, me da is he gives me, no imperative implied.

updated MAR 3, 2010
posted by 00494d19
0
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Got it. Thank you both for the quick responses. I have to say the friendly knowledgable community is my favorite thing about Span¡shD!ct.com

updated MAR 3, 2010
posted by jacob4408