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No me va a pasar nada.

No me va a pasar nada.

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Dear all,

I would like to know meaning of { no me va a pasar nada } in below sentence:

  • No tienes por qu'e preocuparte por m'i. No me va a pasar nada.

meaning : you don't have to worry me , i will be alright . --> is it correct? I am not sure the structure of { no me va a pasar nada } . 1} is "me " a reflexive of pasarse? 2) why "va" is used , but not 'voy" ?

Please point me out if i am wrong, Thanks very much.

6447 views
updated Feb 27, 2010
posted by damazcuz

1 Answer

3
votes

Va is used rather than voy because "nothing" is the subject of the verb pasar (happen).

...nothing is going to happen to me. "me" is an i.o.p.; not a reflexive pronoun

ir+a+pasar=going to happen (periphrasis for future tense)

Just another example of where Spanish puts the subject after the verb.

Nada va a pasarme. Would have been possible, but more awkward.

updated Feb 28, 2010
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507