HomeQ&AIs it "dame" or "dáme" ?

Is it "dame" or "dáme" ?

1
vote

To form the informal, singular command for dar and you want to say "give me", would it be "dame" or "dáme"?

I was told when there are two syllables, then you add an accent. I think the exceptions are the irregular informal tú commands, well until you add on another word like a direct object.

65117 views
updated OCT 29, 2010
posted by thaibean06

3 Answers

6
votes

The simple way to remember the rule is that the accent must remain on the verb where it was before you appended the pronoun(s).

da-being one syllable, the accent is, of course, on the "a".

dame-being grave (the word ends in a vowel, n or s) the accent falls on the "a" where it was before we appended the pronoun so no accent mark is needed.

dámelo=being grave (the word ends in a vowel,n or s) the accent would fall on the "e". To preserve our original pronunciation we need to add an accent mark over the "a".

updated OCT 27, 2010
posted by 0074b507
I think I get it! Thanks! - thaibean06, FEB 13, 2010
4
votes

Before 1955 every imperative word was accentuated in spanish. Then the Real Spanish Academy changed the rule, and the imperatives were not accentuated anymore just for being imperatives.

There is only one way to write "dame", without accent.

(sorry if the grammar is not correct, an spanish student of english here)

updated OCT 27, 2010
posted by xm84
Very interesting! - lorenzo9, OCT 27, 2010
1
vote

dáme is a correct informal command, if you are using the voseo as in "che boludo dáme tu guita."

updated OCT 29, 2010
posted by zoetrope69
Interesting. We don't hear enough about voseo here. - 0074b507, ABR 21, 2010
Vos verbs are always stressed on the final syllable, so there's no written accent with a pronoun appended. Regalame, esperame, tomalo. - baqarah131, OCT 29, 2010
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