HomeQ&AVoseo? I can't grasp the concept.

Voseo? I can't grasp the concept.

2
votes

So, as far as I understand, voseo is used in place of voseo, but I have tried to research it as much as opossible, but I cant understand it. Its just another way to say tú? And wih a different conjugation? If there is a reerence article, I can't find it. So, if anone could give me an explanation of: when it is appropriate, where it is used, what the new conjugtions are, and anything else I need to know to usand undesnd this form.

Thank you.

2133 views
updated FEB 9, 2010
posted by Pregunt贸n

3 Answers

7
votes

The voceo is mainly used in Argentina, and basically it changes the "tú" for the "vos". The "voceo" is used in informal talking. The conjugation is also different. I've found a simple rule and it seems to work fine for all the verbs I've tried. There will be for sure some exceptions.

It is: In present tense, when you use "vos", the conjugated form you use is the same you would use for "vosotros", but removing the "i" in the last syllable.

By example:

Tú sabes => vos sabés (vosotros sabéis)

Tu conoces => vos conocés (vosotros conocéis)

Tu eres => vos sos (vosotros sois)

For the past ans future tenses, the conjugated form is the same you use for tú.

Tu sabías => vos sabías

Tu conocías => vos conocías

Tu sabrás => vov sabrás

Tu conocerás => vos conocerás

etc.

I hope this will help you.

updated MAR 1, 2010
edited by 00e657d4
posted by 00e657d4
Cool rule. Thanks. - webdunce, FEB 3, 2010
what a great answer Guillermo. - Izanoni1, FEB 3, 2010
Nobleza obliga... muy buena explicaci贸n! - Benz, FEB 3, 2010
2
votes
updated FEB 3, 2010
posted by webdunce
Nice link! - chaparrito, FEB 3, 2010
Muy buena tu informaci贸n Webdunce... - Carlos-F, FEB 3, 2010
0
votes

What I'm confused about is, does the voseo only exist in the present? I've been searching all over the internet, and I can't seem to find an article talking about the voseo in any tense except the present indicative, imperative, and some on subjunctive.

updated FEB 3, 2010
posted by Pregunt贸n
No, it is a pronom. Use, obviusly, with any tense.You=tu'=vos - pepitogrillo, FEB 3, 2010
But there are obvious differences in the present indicative and, a far as I remember nobody has ever mentioned possible irregulrities in other tenses. - samdie, FEB 3, 2010
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