why "me encanta" and Not "Yo encanta"
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why use "me" when the speaker is " I"
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updated ENE 25, 2010
posted by lms8747on2
2 Answers
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This is one of those verbs like "gustar" which works "backwards." It's best to think of encantar as "to be enchanting." This way, when you say, "me encanta," you are saying, "it is enchanting to me."
updated ENE 25, 2010
edited by hithere3387
posted by hithere3387
Backwards is a very apt adverb. Not too technical, but accurate. (Intransitive) - 0074b507, ENE 25, 2010
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Because encantar is a verb that is doing something to you, rather than you doing something to something else. "Me encanta el burrito" literally means "The burrito is enchanting to me." It's the burrito that is doing something, not you.
There is no shortage of discussion on this subject. Do a search on "encantar" or "gustar" in this section, and you'll find plenty of answers to your question.
updated ENE 24, 2010
edited by 008f2974
posted by 008f2974
