"ir + a + infinitive" vs. "querer + infinitive". Why does one need the preposition "a" and the other one doesn't?
Hi, I'm a Spanish teacher with no formal grammatical training and I'm going to teaching my students the verb "ir" in the present tense.
Whenever you use it with a verb you need the preposition "a". Yo voy a comer. I am going to eat. But comer is already in it's infinitive (to eat). Why does this get a double "to"? I'm going to to eat?
If you're saying I want to eat, you just say "Yo quiero comer" - the preposition "to" is implied because the verb is in it's infinitive form.
Can someone shed some light on this for me so that I know what to tell my students?
Gracias, Ana
6 Answers
Hi Ana,
I didn't read Claire's link, but quickly I'll share the response that I received when I asked the same question of my tutor.
There's a grammar rule that states that whenever you are beginning to do something, you attach the prepostion "a" to the phrase. Some examples are:
Comenzar a + infintive Empezar a + infinitive Ir a + infinitve Iniciar a + infinitive
So, from what I was taught, its just a rule when beginning to to something.
HTH, Josh
Read claires answer:
This is an interesting quote on that page:
But this has nothing to do with English grammar. This is pure Spanish grammar, and it's not a good idea to "force" the grammar of one language into that of a different language.
HI ana, have you seen our excellent grammar section on this site?
this article about the ir a was recently added by Moe.
Heidita, I just read the link you mentioned as having been added by Moe for ir a It presents the information very clearly. We owe you, and especially Moe, (and indeed Lazarus 1907, too), "las gracias" for such a clear and well-organized explanation.
Part of the information referred to other prepositions one may use with "ir". (I added bold to the two other than "a".)
"Ir" is used with prepositions like "a", "hacia" and "hasta" as references to a destination. It is also used to indicate a mode of transportation as in "en tren" or "a pie".
It might be helpful to have some examples of these, also for AnaMariaFlor. I suppose that if one uses "ir" with "hasta" or "hacia", one would not, in fact, employ the "a" and that the "a" is only used when followed by a verb??
Wow Claire, I read what you wrote in the "a" link you sent me. I had no idea it was that complicated. That was very insightful. Thank you.
I know that Spanish grammar is not the same as English grammar and that this question has nothing to do with English grammar. I'm asking what does Spanish grammar have to say about this? Why do you sometimes use the preposition "a" and sometimes just use the infinitive? How do you know when to use it and when not to?
