Weird sounding "nos los" is it OK?
I'm a beginner so bear with me. The translation engines are so inconsistent that I can't "check my work" against them. Real simple example: He buys the balloons for us. -> Él nos compra los globos para nosotros. (long form) -> Nos los compra. (shortest form) Is this really correct? "Nos los" sounds funny so does it get changed to something else or is it that simple? And if it's a rule that you have to have the indirect object pronoun then why do the translation engines seem to get so confused by it? Thanks.
3 Answers
It appears correct to me.
In Spanish, whenever there are two objects to a single verb, you must place the indirect object pronoun before the verb.
In this instance, the pronoun "nos" is an indirect object pronoun, while "los" is a direct object pronoun. When the sentence, "Él nos compra los globos para nosotros," is shortened to, "Nos los compra," it translates to, "He bought them for us."
As always, I suggest waiting for confirmation of my answer as I have a penchant for dolling out incorrect information. 
Completely right "nos los" however people commonly say "no los" which is wrong, so when you talk right you sound "weird"!
This seems correct.
