HomeQ&ASE what???

SE what???

6
votes

Hey guys....I have a question. Yes I have learned this before but my brain can't keep it all in sometimes. Ok.

In my daily meanderings I came across this contruction: Te se me nota? It was complete with a sad eyed bear, etc... It reads as "Do you notice me?" to me. Like "Do you even know that I exist?" That is how I read it. I got to thinking though about Se and how it acts with other pronouns. I assume notar is reflexive here, or pronomial at the very least being notarse. Of course we know about passive and impersonal Se and reflexive se and the Se that takes away some of the blame etc... I.e. Se me rompió esta mesa etc.. but how does Se react to other pronouns when used in a construction like this? We couldn't you say "Te me noto?" instead of "Te se me nota?" and why is "nota" in the third person singular? I understand this construction I just don't "understand" why I understand it. How does "se" really react when attached/impressed by a pronoun that it acts upon? Maybe I have it all wrong here, but "ya me voy" and "me doy por vencido" seem easy because they don't act on another pronoun but how would "me doy por vencido" read if it was acting on the pronoun "te"? "Te se me da por vencido"? you see where the confusion lies.

4433 views
updated NOV 17, 2014
posted by jeezzle
Love the title :D - webdunce, ENE 20, 2010
Great question. I'm not sure pisacaballo covered it all yet. I'm looking forward to more input from others. - chaparrito, ENE 20, 2010
I'm voting you up for t he title. Your question is beyond me. - Chavag, ENE 21, 2010
That title is hilarious! - Swerve86, NOV 17, 2014

12 Answers

3
votes

Very funny jeez, this sign says:

Te quiero, ¿se me nota?

LOL You missed the heart!!!!!!!!

updated SEP 27, 2013
posted by 00494d19
Ah, thanks for the link to the sign. - webdunce, ENE 22, 2010
Yes, thank you. Now the 'te se me...' makes sense. The 'word' "< 3" or 'quiero' was missing! :-) - chaparrito, ENE 22, 2010
2
votes

Te se me nota

So it couldn't possibly mean "It makes me noticeable to you" or something similar? I'm not sure I understand why it's wrong (though I hope it is, I dislike having 3 pronouns just shoved up at the beginning like that).

updated NOV 17, 2014
edited by webdunce
posted by webdunce
lol that confuses me everytime! - Swerve86, NOV 17, 2014
2
votes

Isn't this the same construction as :

Se me olvida - I forgot (It forgot itself to me)

Meaning you focus on the thing forgotten rather than the person who forgot.

Same here right ?

Se me nota - I see it (It notices itself to me)

Just a shift in focus.

updated ENE 22, 2010
posted by stucky101
Nice explanation. Kind of a relexive/intransitive. Lazarus explained it in a thread here once, but I don't remember the details. - 0074b507, ENE 21, 2010
1
vote

"Se te nota mi nuevo corte de pelo" está bien, el tema es que lo estás viendo desde el punto de vista de quien se corta el pelo y no del peluquero.

La idea del ejemplo era mostrar como se podía intercambiar la posición del sustantivo.

updated ENE 22, 2010
edited by pisacaballo
posted by pisacaballo
1
vote

Yes great thread ! I know "it forgot itself to me" is wrong but it somehow helps me. I always use

"Se dice" as a reminder that "se" is not always reflexive but it's just soo tempting...

updated ENE 22, 2010
posted by stucky101
1
vote

If your confusion lies in the third person conjugation, without all the grammar, it's basically like this "se" is used like "does anyone" or "do you" in English. A few of the examples you gave couldn't be possible. But "se" can be used in two ways. 1) Se baña, is a reflexive verb, a person doing something to his or herself. This is NOT what you are seeing in "Se me nota". 2) "Does anyone" notice me? Now, me, is actually the indirect object. So, "me nota" is "Does he or she or it notice me"... Since the person is not specified, it's the GSM grammar thing happening. Grupo sintactico nominal. So "Se me nota" is "Does anyone notice me?"

updated ENE 22, 2010
posted by pilipina
1
vote

Firstly: "Te se me nota" is wrong, the correct sentence is " se me nota " or " se te nota". To understand why "nota" is in the third person see the following exaples.

"se me nota mi nuevo corte de pelo" "se te nota la herida en el brazo"

"el nuevo corte de pelo se me nota." "la herida en el brazo se te nota."

In spanish there is something called GSM (grupo sintáctico nominal).

Basically what you need in spanish to make a sentence is a noun and an adjective. But here the noun is omited and referenced by the verb.

updated ENE 21, 2010
edited by pisacaballo
posted by pisacaballo
I´m curious about your answer. What is a grupo sintáctico nominal? How are these sentences made up of a noun (omitted) and a verb? - kattya, ENE 20, 2010
"se me nota" is missing the noun phrase "mi nuevo corte de pelo" When he says "here" he is referring to the original question. - 0074b507, ENE 20, 2010
0
votes

"Se te nota mi nuevo corte de pelo"

This is not correct.

Se te nota tu nuevo corte de pelo.wink

updated ENE 22, 2010
posted by 00494d19
0
votes

Found a copy of the image that says "Te se me nota".

http://s0.fotolog.com.ar/photo/l/000/533/533448_111504047.jpg

Also, if "Se me nota mi nuevo corte de pelo" means "Does anyone notice my new hair cut" (according to Dana-Bates excellent paragraph above) then what does "Se te nota mi nuevo corte de pelo" mean. You see how the pronoun is confusing. "Does anyone notice, to you, my new haircut?" I don't get it.

updated ENE 22, 2010
edited by jeezzle
posted by jeezzle
0
votes

Isn't this the same construction as :

Se me olvida - I forgot (It forgot itself to me)

Meaning you focus on the thing forgotten rather than the person who forgot.

Reading this thread on the topic of Se me olvida might interest you.

[Lazaras on this construction][1]

[1]: Sentence Construction using the

updated ENE 21, 2010
posted by 0074b507
0
votes

The se seems to be there because the verb is being used pronominally.

notarse

pronomial verb

also:

  • no se nota la herida -> you can't see where the wound was
  • se nota que le gusta -> you can tell she likes it
  • (and yes, the se looks impersonal-you can or you cannot tell)

-

But here the noun is omitted and referenced by the verb.

se me nota... (mi nuevo corte de pelo) [noun phrase]

se te nota...

I understand that the (d.o.) noun phrase is missing, but how does the pronoun me or te reference it? Are you just saying that the me or te is an accusative pronoun?

updated ENE 21, 2010
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
0
votes

So what exactly about those examples is supposed to make this clear to me? I understand what they mean but I still don't get the reason that "nota" is in third person. "Se me nota mi nuevo corto de pelo". Isn't that just impersonal se? One notices my new hair cut? I'm really interested in how it acts on another pronoun even if the poster apparently was printed with a misprint. I don't know how they are gonna sell it like that.

updated ENE 21, 2010
posted by jeezzle
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