why do spanish words need an "acentos"
why do some of the spanish words use "acentos"
Welcome to the forum, kudai, The answers by kenwilliams and Margaret are better than I could give you so I won't even try to elaborate. One thing is important here though. Capitalization and proper punctuation (just like the accent) are required in posting since this is a learning site. Oftentime, newcomers to the site don't realize that English is also being learned here so we have to write in a manner that won't interfer with the learning process. Your's is an excellent question as I'm still trying to learn which accent goes where. It takes time so stick with it. Hope to see more of your questions soon.
Not an easy question to answer but in short it is to stress the tonic sylable and also the 1st person indicative tense of a verb is often spelt the the same as the 3rd person preterite past tense so the preterite would carry the acento thus: the verb amar 1st person indicative is amo and the 3rd person preterite is amó.
Spanish uses accents for two reasons To show how a word is stressed. To differentiate between two words that are spelled the same but have different meaning For example: mi = my mí= the prepostional pronoun me estás= second person informal of estar estas feminine version of estos, meaning those There is no difference in spelling, but the presence of the accent changes the meaning.