Why is the possessive adjective used here?

Question

Today (during church) I noticed this sentence in the Bible-

Ezequiel 2:8-- Y tú, hijo de hombre, escucha lo que te hablo; no seas rebelde como esa casa rebelde. Abre tu boca y come lo que te doy.

So I'm, like, "Wait a minute! That should be "abre la boca." Not tu! Everybody knows that!!

How many different places have I heard or read that possessive adjectives are not used with articles of clothing or body parts. In a lesson on Spanishpod.com, Liliana says, "We would never say 'my mouth'...that's just too weird.'

So I'm thinking I've found a real boo-boo, and surely none of the other Bible translations say this. Wow!

Now I can't wait until I get out of church so I can go check this out. But then it gets worse! The sermon today went on in to chapter 3, where it says:

Ezequiel 3:3-- Entonces me dijo: Hijo de hombre, alimenta tu estómago y llena tu cuerpo de este rollo que te doy. Y lo comí, y fue en mi boca dulce como la miel.

¡No puede ser! ¡Qué barbaridad! ¡Ya basta!

Now I think my Bible is all messed up and I need a new translation. I knew I should have gotten a Reina-Valera rather than an LBLA!

So I come home and check it out on the web. Every version of the Bible translates these sentences in this same way.

So what gives? Why are these possessive pronouns used in these sentences?

Sorry Goyo, I don't know the answer, but I enjoyed reading your story! :-) And...your smiley faces expressions are so perfectly placed! Too funny! (jejeje) I'll be watching for the answer, too! :-) - Dee914, Jan 10, 2010

I too would like to see what is posted in reply. I'm checking into it and may find something. Or may not... - chaparrito, Jan 10, 2010

I am waiting for an answer too Chaparrito. Feel any pressure? - nizhoni1, Jan 10, 2010

Estoy en la cola...! - mountaingirl123, Jan 10, 2010

Yikes! I checked to see if anyone had responded. Ummm... don't look at me... :-) - chaparrito, Jan 11, 2010

Answer 1

I'm glad people have started chiming in, because I wanted to understand this also. I have to admit that I wasn't aware of the rule which "Everybody knows" that Goyo referred to where "possessive adjectives are not used with articles of clothing or body parts." So I had to catch up by reading the links he provided.

Reading those, and the three answers given so far made me think this is another one of those 'applies-most-of-the-time-but-there-are-plenty-of-exceptions' rules. Even SpanishDict's Possessive Adjectives does not rule out their use when it says: "Possessive adjectives are not used when possession is obvious." And About.com's Names of Body Parts is equally open by saying "In most cases, the possessive adjective is used only where the context doesn't make clear whose body is being referred to."

This all leads me to believe that there is no hard and fast rule about not using 'tu boca' or 'mi boca'. In the examples Goyo cited, one might think "Well, isn't it obvious?" And maybe at that moment, centuries ago, it was. But the Bible is a written record of ancient conversations and events meant to benefit future generations. Since what was obvious while it was happening could be ambiguous to us now, then perhaps having those possessive adjectives more clearly preserves the writers thoughts.

Also, the Bible clearly wasn't written in Spanish, or English. (Although I've sadly met more people than I care to count who honestly felt Jesus himself used the King James Bible!) So when translators are honestly endeavoring to capture the essence of the original languages, they are very likely going to use at least some styles of speech that may not be the most natural in their target language.

Either way, I'm glad you raised the question, Goyo! It was another opportunity to learn. I give it two thumbs up! (Unfortunately I can only vote once. )

Good, thoughtful reply. I can't agree about the "ancient conversations" speculation, because the job of a translator is to convey the text into a contemporary form of the target language. --continued... - Goyo, Jan 12, 2010

...continued.. if the target language tends to omit something like possessive personal pronouns, then the translation should as well. - Goyo, Jan 12, 2010

I agree with you about making the target language flow well, and wording in Spanish bibles certainly doesn't follow the syntax of ancient Hebrew or Greek. But since Spanish does not prohibit the use of possessive personal pronouns, and since ... - chaparrito, Jan 12, 2010

...they were most likely used in the original, then to me it makes sense that a translator would also use them, rather than opt for a contemporary form speech at the risk of adding ambiguity. But I suppose that's one of the challenges for translators. :-) - chaparrito, Jan 12, 2010

Answer 2

It is correct in Spanish and it is not odd. Your bible is OK.

"Tu" in this case is "your". "Mi is "my".

Does this answer your question?

but it is still a possessive adjective and not to be used with body parts - Yeser007, Jan 11, 2010

I think your answer is pretty good, actually. Thank you. - Goyo, Jan 12, 2010

Answer 3

Not being a gramarian, I cannot tell you why these so-called rules exist. I can tell you that in many songs and literature, you will find personal pronouns attached to body parts - in a matter of speaking. I wouldn't toss out your bible.

Answer 4

Is it possible that adjectives used with body parts is a literary devic? Like personification?

Answer 5

I have one of the newest revisions of the Reina-Valera (2009). It also uses the possessive adjectives in these verses.

I think the translators attempt to maintain something of the historical background of the Bible. Someone like Lazaras may know if the possessives were used in these kinds of Spanish phrases several hundred years ago. If they were, then just look at this as a translation of an ancient text. In any case, I think it's still grammatically correct, even if it sounds odd.