Conjugation Question

1
vote

Why does Spanish have different endings depending on who you are talking to, unlike English?

1124 views
updated ENE 7, 2010
posted by jakeazoid

5 Answers

1
vote

A better spin of question would be: why doesn't English have more verb endings like Spanish?

If you're interested in seeing how or why, you can read this article or even look at some examples in this pdf.

English used to mark its verb as well, but modern English has lost those endings. The history of English is really fascinating because it's experienced so many drastic changes!

updated ENE 7, 2010
edited by Luciente
posted by Luciente
1
vote

HI Jake, welcome to the forumsmile

Well, I am a teacher, and my students ask the same, why does English have almost no verb endings? wink

However, in Spanish we do not use (almost never) subject pronouns, so it is essential to get the correct ending of the verb to see who is talking.

updated ENE 7, 2010
posted by 00494d19
Context, context, context!! Very important. :)
0
votes

For lack of a better answer, it just is. Why in english do we put an "s" on the end of verbs when the subject is singular? (this is just one example of many, of course) Such as "He talks" where as in spanish you say "Él habla" and this is true for the other nouns and pronouns. smile

updated ENE 7, 2010
posted by Jason7R
0
votes

This helps to show who we are talking to. It isn't completely needed but in Spanish they don't always say who is talking. For example..

He talks In spanish it can be

él habla or just habla

updated ENE 7, 2010
posted by JohnnyK
0
votes

In english you is you. In Spanish," you" can be say ................. tu..... voz....

usteded......

I think, I am not sure. warning,not responsible for the spellings

updated ENE 7, 2010
posted by 00769608