Why does the sentence "She is missing a shoe" need an indirect object pronoun?

Question

I thought i understood the use of the indirect object pronouns, but now the verb "faltar" is supposedly used like gustar and needs an indirect object pronoun.

I am confused why that sentence needs one. Isn't indirect object pronouns telling where something is going or to whom it goes. so how is that necessary in that sentence?

"le falta un zapato."

I understand most uses of indirect object pronouns, but this one makes no sense to me.

Answer 1

Falta un zapato. = A shoe is missing.

Le falta un zapato. = He/she is missing a shoe.

Le falta un zapato a ella. = She is missing a shoe.

Ok, so why does that need an indirect object? why can't you just say ella esta falta un zapato? - pepsiwriter37, Jan 1, 2010

because that doesn't make sense in Spanish. Just forget about being able to translate this literally into English, because it won't work.:) - 003487d6, Jan 1, 2010

That would sound something like - She is it is missing a shoe. :( - Kiwi-Girl, Oct 12, 2010

Answer 2

Faltar is an intransitive verb and as such it does not take a direct object.

Un zapato = Subject.

Faltar = verb

A ella = indirect object

le = indirect object pronoun

Le falta un zapato a ella. Literally, a shoe is missing TO her, not a shoe is missing her.

For this reason you need an indirect object with gustar, encantar etc.

Answer 3

One of the uses (in Spanish) of the "indirect object" is to represent what in Latin grammar was called the "dative of benefit" (could also be the "dative of disadvantage"). In English this is usually handled more indirectly (with longer phrases). "A ella le falta un zapato." = "A shoe is lacking/missing to/for her." This sort of construction is less popular in English (we prefer "She is lacking/missing a shoe." [very different syntax] to express the same idea.)

Other languages are under no obligation to conform to the syntax of English (and, in point of fact, often do not). One of the main benefits of studying a second language is that it provides an opportunity to learn that there is more than one way to express oneself.

Answer 4

Le is needed I think because shoe is the object of the sentence. In Spanish often you say things ass-backwards. I don't know why that is but it is. The shoe is lacking unto her is the way it's said in Spanish. Me gusta la comida mexicana means that mexican food is pleasing to me. Se me olvidó means I forgot but in Spanish it's it was forgotten unto me. So some things are just said that way in Spanish where the subject and the object are switched.

Correct. So shoe being the object of the English sentence, is the subject of the Spanish sentence. - 0074b507, Oct 12, 2010

I call it ass-backward syntax. In Spanish that's the way it's done. Ex - Bob-Dressler2, Oct 12, 2010

Example - Me encantan las chicas, no me importa, no me antoja nada. I like the girls, it's not important, I don't care for anything. - Bob-Dressler2, Oct 12, 2010

Make sure that you have the indicative and the subjunctive right, and that your verb agrees with the subject. - Bob-Dressler2, Oct 12, 2010

Answer 5

It looks to me as if faltar applies to the thing missing, not to the person missing it.

So the verb is conjugated to the shoe, not the person. And then you need an indirect object to describe who it is who lacks the shoe(s).

Le falta un zapato.

Le faltan los zapatos.

los zapatos - Mokay, Jan 1, 2010

¡Ay ay ay caramba! jejeje gracias - Goyo, Jan 1, 2010

Answer 6

Ok, so why does that need an indirect object? why can't you just say ella está falta un zapato?

That translates to "She is a shoe is missing", which makes as much sense in English as it does in Spanish. Using esta instead of está, it translates to "She this a shoe is missing", which doesn't make sense either.