Personal [á]

Question

hi, I have always been taught in Spanish you always need to use the personal "á" before any direct object when that object refers to [a person], but I am seeing in some translations the 'a' does not have an accent, other times a non-personal direct object has an accent on the "a". Was I taught wrong?

Answer 1

HI bcd, no, a never has an accent in Spanish. This was probably a French person writing.

this was me writing while being confused with french.......and some other things I can't seem to remember....but thanks for your clarification - bdclark0423, DIC 31, 2009

Answer 2

Below is an article discussing the rules for using the personal "a". Notice that the "a" does not have an accent mark.

Could you give us an example of when the "a" is used with an inanimate or depersonalized, direct direct and carries an accent mark? Of the top of my head, I can think of no situation where the preposition "a" carries an accent mark. (except in French, but that isn't an acute accent mark, but a grave one... à la mode)

Personal "a"

I could be confused then, but here is one example I found...."Entonces, ofrezco mi apoyo gramatical del inglés....y á la misma vez me gustaría practicar más comunicar á UDs en Español." Perhaps it's not necessarily the personal [a]used but the manner? - bdclark0423, DIC 31, 2009

Here is another, but please keep in mind I am writing to someone with the Argentine dialect and they use 'vos' "Lo siento si ofende á vos la forma en que estoy contestándose, pero como me respondiste ál correo me hizo muchissimo reír" - bdclark0423, DIC 31, 2009

hmmm, i think I completely confused myself....because now I cannot generate a translation where the [a] has an accent mark.....except in French as you have pointed out....perhaps I am confusing the two? Is there ever a time [a] has an accent in Spanish? - bdclark0423, DIC 31, 2009