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A mi abuela ___ gusta pasear sola.

A mi abuela ___ gusta pasear sola.

0
votes

Are both lo and le right to fill the blank? I think it should be a direct object prnoun here. Although the best choice, I think, should be la, both lo and le could also be used here. Thanks a lot.

2866 views
updated Dec 29, 2009
posted by zhoujian

3 Answers

2
votes

It would be an indirect object pronoun. "Walking alone is pleasing to my Grandmother. "Le gusta..."

Here is a link to the Reference page on Indirect Object Pronouns: link text

As noted on this page, if there is an Indirect Object, you must use an Ind. Obj. Prounoun (in this case "le"). The prepositional phrase ("a mi abuela") is optional - either for clarity if there is a doubt about "to whom", or sometimes just for emphasis.

updated Dec 29, 2009
edited by DR1960
posted by DR1960
1
vote

I thought, the word in the blank should be a direct object pronoun referring to "a mi abuela"

Indirect object is correct because the person is receiving the action of the verb rather than being acted on.

link

updated Dec 29, 2009
posted by lorenzo9
0
votes

Thanks, DR 1960. But my understanding of the sentence is that "pasear sola gusta a mi abuela". As "a mi abuela" is put in front of the sentence, there needs a direct object pronoun as double references(may not be the right expression). The best would be "a mi abuela la gusta pasear sola". And lo could be used as direct object pronoun for both male and female. So lo would be fine as well, I think. As le could replace lo and la as direct object pronouns, so I guess le would also be correct.

updated Dec 29, 2009
posted by zhoujian
Nope. Indirect object. - samdie, Dec 29, 2009
Actually, Spanish grammars would usually say "dative of benefit" but, unless you've studied Latin ... - samdie, Dec 29, 2009