Has the language changed much from "classical" times?
For instance, there's a Shakesperian English, so how about Spanish? Of course there probably is, but what has been the differences?
3 Answers
Oh, nice to hear that, Greenman. Yes, I can tell you the title, it's "Holocausto y Cultura: la voz desgarrada" by Salvador Santa Puche, a reknown specialist when it comes to Ladino studies. It's not the film about the language itself, but they speak it there. Nice experience. Good luck!
Well, first of all, I think that "classical times" is too broad a word...I am not a specialist but I can tell you an interesting thing. Mainly, if you are really eager to listen to 15-century Spanish, go to Israel where you can encounter Ladino-speakers. Ladino, also known as Judaeo-Spanish, is the lanuage that Jews used to speak in Spain until in 1492 they were expelled therefrom by Catholic Monarchs. Nowadays, the ones who speak it in Israel, are probably descendants of these poor immingrants. I had a chance to watch a doc. about Sephardic Ladino-speaking Jews. Well, the language is very strange and it was really impressive while watching it to be aware of the fact that this language has been unchanged since 15th century. When you hear it, well... well, it does resemble modern Spanish in some respects. From a linguistic point of view, this is an extraordinary phenomenon, the Ladino language.Living relic, so to speak ![]()
How would you answer your question concerning modern English and Shakesperian English? That or this is hardly a question that is going to be answered in a response of two or three paragraphs. Volumes exist on Middle English alone, let alone contrasting it to modern English. Your question concerning the Spanish language is also too broad for a simple answer.