re: why does "do" in english translate as "¿" in spanish?

Question

Example: Bob, do you want to eat?

         ¿Bob, ¿quieres comer?

Answer 1

Thenglishspeaker:

"Bob, do you want to eat?" ----> This is a question in English.

It's reasonable to expect that when it is translated to Spanish it will also be a question.

In Spanish a question begins with an inverted question mark like this ----> ¿

In both Spanish and English, a question ends with a standard question mark
like this ----> ?

The inverted question mark (¿) is not caused by the word "do" being a part of the question. It is just that this is the way all Spanish questions are written.

I hope this is what you were asking. I also hope this answer is some help to you.

Recuerdos/Regards,

Moe

Answer 2

It doesn't. In Spanish, they don't literally say "Do you [verb]" like we do. Instead, we simply say in a question if they eat, or want, or whatever the case may be. Instead of Do you want to eat, ¿Quieres comer? . Instead of saying Do you like pie, say ¿Te gusta empanada?

Do, or to do, translates to the verb hacer.