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Direct Object Pronouns with Ud.

Direct Object Pronouns with Ud.

1
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I know with Ud. and Uds. the 3rd person Direct Object pronoun used is lo, la, los las. I am a little confused in the following 2 sentences. I believe I have done it right, because I believe the first sentence refers to "me", and the second sentence that is an answer to the first question sentence, referes to "me" but from the perspective of the person answering the question. Where I have put ( ) is blank on my page, and I have to fill in the blank. Within the ( ) is what I believe is correct. Sentence 1. Sr. Ortiz asks: ¿(Me) llama Ud. por teléfono mañana, Sr. Fonseca? Sentence 2. Sr. Fonseca responds: ¡Claro¡ (Lo) llamo a las diez! Gracias.

11995 views
updated Dec 9, 2009
posted by Rolest
Sorry. - idahorsegirl, Dec 2, 2009

3 Answers

2
votes

¿(Me) llama Ud. por teléfono mañana, Sr. Fonseca? Sentence 2. Sr. Fonseca responds: ¡Claro¡ (Lo) llamo a las diez!

Hi rolest, your answers are correct. It is actually more correct to say "lo" than le in this case, we use le all the time in Madrid, but this is called leísmo, an error.

It saddens me to see that an answer than contained blatant errors, not only was voted up once, but twice with no one posting a rebuttal.

I am sorry , too, not only because rolest got the wrong impression but for the person who voted the second time without waiting for a confirmation.

Please wait for a confirmation by a native on a question like this, or a trusted user's like Quentin, whose grammar knowledge is often more streched than mine, jeje.

Ocean, I know you meant well, but to talk like this "ex cátedra" is dangerous if you are not a specialist on grammar.

updated Dec 2, 2009
posted by 00494d19
3
votes

You had it spot on!

Keep in mind that you need an equal number of exclamation points, two per exclamation. You have two for Claro, however, both are upside down. The one on the right should be normal. You need an upside down point at the left side of the second phrase.

I apologize for my incorrectness. This is what I thought I had been taught in my Spanish classes. I guess I remembered incorrectly. I truly am sorry. I'll try to double-check next time I post.

Please unvote this answer.

updated Dec 9, 2009
edited by idahorsegirl
posted by idahorsegirl
This answer is not correct, please don't chose an answer until yu get confirmation! - 00494d19, Dec 1, 2009
2
votes

Lo is not the direct object for Usted. Rather, "se" is.

Lo is the the direct object pronoun used with usted when usted is, indeed, a direct object. Of course, it would be le (and under certain conditions se) if usted was being used as an indirect object.

Se is used for all formal addresses. Instead, the second sentence should read:

¡Claro! Se llamo a las diez. Gracias.

Se is incorrect in this sentence. Usually lo would used as it seems to be a direct object, but depending on which country you are in, le can be used and it is considered an indirect object (direct objects are not required for an i.o. to be used in Spanish. This is not true in English).

¡Claro! Lo/le llamo a las diez. Gracias. [¡Claro! voy a llamarlo a las diez.]

Se is a reflexive pronoun usually. The only time that se is used as an object pronoun is when two 3rd person object pronouns occur together. It is not le lo or les las, etc. The i.o. changes to se. Se lo or Se las.

Lo and La are solely for objects, not people.

This quote is from our Reference article shown below.

Just like personal (subject) pronouns replace the subject noun in a sentence, direct object pronouns replace the direct object noun in a sentence which can be a person or a thing

Reference article on D.O. pronouns

It saddens me to see that an answer than contained blatant errors, not only was voted up once, but twice with no one posting a rebuttal.

updated Dec 2, 2009
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
Good explanation, Q. - webdunce, Dec 1, 2009