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How did the creators of the spanish language decide on what nouns were to be masculine or feminine?

How did the creators of the spanish language decide on what nouns were to be masculine or feminine?

2
votes

Spanish language creation process decisions on noun sex.

4559 views
updated Feb 4, 2010
posted by coma
I often wonder the same thing. : ) - Jeanne_Marie, Nov 19, 2009
:-D 'noun gender'. ;-) - chaparrito, Nov 19, 2009

5 Answers

3
votes

Part of the answer is that the masculinity/feminity of many nouns were already decided in Latin. Most Spanish words share the same gender as their Latin counterparts.

updated Nov 20, 2009
posted by mctague
1
vote

Not 100% sure, but my Spanish teacher told me the way anyone tells if something is M or F is to look at the meaning of the word. That is the best she gave me. So Im guessing if el is in front of a noun it is masculine, and la for feminine.

Not sure this helps. But its better than nothing raspberry

updated Feb 4, 2010
edited by blevans
posted by blevans
That's just not possible.There are too many words that pertain only to women are msculine, and vice-versa. - Goyo, Nov 19, 2009
It`s true.... example Teacher for Profes and Profesora... :D - EdiOswaldo, Nov 19, 2009
its not talking about just the sex of a person, you have to tell how it is used in a sentence to determind if it is M or F, like how do you know that la ofica is la and not el, well because how many office's is it talking about one so it singlar and fem - blevans, Feb 4, 2010
to be mas. it would have to be the office, it would have to have extra info. to it since it is just ofica its la because its not THE office its a office - blevans, Feb 4, 2010
1
vote

Muy interesante pero igual aqui también tenemos o más bien tengo una duda algunos dicen "el color" y otros dicen "la color", aunque color es Másculino, investigaré más en la RAE(Real Académia de la Lengua Española)

updated Nov 22, 2009
posted by EdiOswaldo
1
vote

I've been wondering why "el arbol" {tree} and "la madera" {wood} seem to be a contradiction.

updated Nov 22, 2009
posted by Yeser007
Yes, because "el árbol" and don`t "la árbol" ;) - EdiOswaldo, Nov 19, 2009
1
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How did the creators of the spanish languag...

grin I think the word 'creators' actually answers the question, indirectly. No one really creates languages. They change and evolve with time, influenced by events in history; exposure or isolation. No one person or even group of persons can make official and binding decisions about how a language is used.

Languages do have rules or laws, which can be published and taught, but these are simply inherent.

Here's an interesting comment by Samdie (link) that he made regarding the word Idioma.

updated Nov 22, 2009
posted by chaparrito
I disagree. Many languages originate within a small group who have the power to create and change accordingly. I think your use of the word "isolation" speaks for itself. - coma, Nov 22, 2009
What you suggest in sentence four is absurd. We would not have modern structered languages without an agreeable group of people whom decide on all basic fundementals.I agree that all things evolve with time. - coma, Nov 22, 2009