Is "Yo" used as an objective pronoun?
I can't recall an example, but I know I've heard it used that way.
2 Answers
¡hola!, Volponecito:
In the English language, an objective (or object) pronoun indicates that the pronoun is acting as the object of a verb, a compound verb, a preposition, or an infinitive phrase. The objective (or object) pronouns are:
| Singular | Plural | |
| 1st Pers | Me | Us |
| 2nd Pers | You | You |
| 3rd Pers | Him, Her, It | Them |
In the Spanish Language, the object pronouns are identified as direct object pronouns or as indirect object pronouns. Here are both sets of object pronouns in Spanish:
| Singular | Plural | Singular | Plural | ||
| 1st Pers | Me | Nos | 1st Pers | Me | Nos |
| 2nd Pers | Te | Os | 2nd Pers | Te | Os |
| 3rd Pers | Lo, La | Los, Las | 3rd Pers | Le | Les |
From these tables, its evident that Yo is not used as an object pronoun. SpanishDict has a couple of Reference Articles dealing with Object Pronouns You can read them by following these links:
For direct object pronouns ----> Direct Object Pronouns
For indirect object pronouns ----> Indirect Object Pronouns
I hope this is the information you were asking about.
Recuerdos/Regards,
Moe
Are you thinking of "menos yo"? In that usage. "menos" acts as a preposition, and "yo" is used as the object. That's the only time I can think of, and I'm not sure that it's standard Spanish. I definitely heard it used in Venezuela.