Pronunciation of "B" and "V"
I am just trying to learn Spanish. I am confused about the pronunciation of Vs. If I say veinte, do I say ven-tae or ben-tae? Thank you.
24 Answers
However I learned from Puerto Ricans and Ecuadorians who emphasized that there is a difference
Consult any pronunciation guide written by Spanish speakers and they will tell you that there is (and shouldn't be) any distinction between the pronunciations of the two letters. Notice among the "less educated Spanish speakers" (from all countries) the frequent confusion (in writing) between the two letters. The explanation is quite simple; they are pronounced the same and when it's necessary to write them, one chooses (not on the basis of pronunciation) but of some ill-remembered rules.
Please supply, if you can, a citation of any credible article that has been published (mostly meant to exclude an email from some friend) which documents a dialect of Spanish (whatever the region) that makes a consistent b/v distinction.
I would just like to clarify one thing, that is doubtless leading to a great deal of confusion, and which was hinted at above. There are two different pronunciations for both B and V, but they overlap. I'll explain: At the start of a word, either a 'B' or a 'V' will be pronounced hard, what is called a biliabial, '/b/' sound. HOWEVER, in the middle of a word, either one will be pronounced softer, somewhere between a /v/ and a /w/ - just think of the phrase 'por favor' - when have you ever heard anyone say 'por fabor'? So in short, two letters, two pronunciations - unfortunately its the same two pronunciations each!
What the Spanish teachers (from Spain) said was that there is a difference between V and B-
Not according the the RAE and any other serious discussion of the sounds in Spanish.
You are confusing several different issues. 1) There are two different (but similar) sounds in Spanish Both sounds are associated with both b & v (which sound is used in any given word depends on the rest of the word (the phonetic environment) but does not depend on whether the word is written with a "b" or a "v". As mentioned before, this is why many poor spellers make mistakes involving the b & v. For the same reason people who uses the seseo are more prone to make spelling mistakes involving c/z/s (because they pronounce them all the same).
2) The other issue is that the two Spanish sounds do not exist in English (although one of the sounds is close to the English sound for "b"). English speakers listening to Spanish tend to mis-hear the sounds (when one hears an "unusual" sound in a foreign language, there is a natural tendency to try to interpret the sound as something familiar). Put another way, your ears are "prejudiced" by your native language. Some people are less prejudiced than the majority (or can "overcome" their prejudice) but others can't/don't.
A well known example of this (based on English sounds) is the l / r distinction that gives so much trouble to the Japanese, Koreans and Cantonese speakers. A small number can hear/make the distinction but for the vast majority, you can say "rock" and "lock" 'til you're blue in the face and they will say "They sound the same to me."
t sounds like talking in circles, although that wasn't the intent. confused Would that be a fair way to sum it up to an English speaking person learning Spanish
Yes, chaparrito: there is no difference between b and v...that is it
Not joking, there simply is no difference. I am having a hard time teaching the children that there is a notable difference between b and v in English...they pronounce the letters the same,
book is b/vook
More important: best and vest are the same
Please supply, if you can, a citation of any credible article that has been published (mostly meant to exclude an email from some friend) which documents a dialect of Spanish (whatever the region) that makes a consistent b/v distinction.
Well this got my curiosity up so I tried! And I stand corrected. I read several forums and on-line guides. The best one is at this webpage. This treatise of the B/V pronunciation is totally enlightening.
Here are just two excerpts:
"El fonema /b/ se representa en la escritura por b o v: caballo, robo, libro, vida, servir, leve. Es un error todavía extendido suponer que estas dos letras responden, como en otros idiomas, a dos fonemas diferentes" (Manuel Seco, Diccionario de dudas y dificultades de la lengua española, 10ª edición revisada [Madrid: Espasa, 1998])."
"Remember only this: The graphemes b and v are avsolutely, positibely IDENTICAL IN SPANISH PRONUNCIATION, no matter where they occur. Period. No exceptions. No funny stuff. But you will hear increasing phonetic differentiation between b (always a bilabial) and v (incorrectly, as a labiodental) the closer you get to certain bilingual populations, for example, along the U.S.-Mexico border, simply as a matter of phonetic cross-pollination, because the b and the v on the English-speaking side are bery different, as pointed out already avobe (or, if you prefer, "above"). And gibben the sheer inbasive force of the English language all obber the world, I predict that this differentiation is likely to increase measuravly obber time."
If you have not already read the entire webpage from where these two excerpts came then you really should. (Even if you already know the answer. It is quality writing for it's own sake!).
And I'm going to pass this on to my instructors (and friends) who apparently have been tainted by their proximity to los Estados Unidos!
Thank you Samdie for pushing the issue to make the lesson clear! 
This was just posted on another thread, excellent pronounciation, I checked it.
Either the Vee or Bee sound will be understood. Speaking for myself, I adopt a form of speaking, in this case the b-sound for veinte, and stick with it. It becomes my characteristicly personal and perfectly acceptable way of speaking. In 99 % of cases, I am perfectly understood. Although, often my dialect instigates the," Where are you from? question." This is good though, because it prolongs the conversation even further. Sorry for the lengthy reply.
It depends on the country. I speak mostly with Mexicans and for them the V and B are almost indistinguishable and sound more like the English letter "B". In fact if one of my friends is spelling something out loud for me, he will often say "B grande" which is B or "B chica" which is V. However I learned from Puerto Ricans and Ecuadorians who emphasized that there is a difference.
I have heard it is regional and differs. I was taught a kind of B-like V - I'm almost saying ben-tae. I put my teeth on my lower lip like I am going to say "V", then try to say "B" using softer lips and a bit more air; (when I'm at the top of my game anyway, which is not often!)
I really don't know why I am still posting on this thread.......
Melanor: trust me, you do not, NOT, pronounce the b and the v differently.
Ok, last post for me on this topic I think I have repeated myself like an idiot.
Can any Spanish person hear the difference when hearing Barcelona and Valencia?
What the Spanish teachers (from Spain) said was that there is a difference between V and B- in which they are pronounced as they would in English.
Lhexin, I was taught that also, but have not been able to find a credible reference work that states it that way. I assumed my instructors were correct since they were the ones doing the teaching, but the only written information they had was a hand-out they gave to us.
(I do agree with you about learning to write properly. For me, having thought there was a difference in pronunciation has helped me in this sense.)
Could you provide a reference that confirms what your Profesores de España have told you? Thanks!
What the Spanish teachers (from Spain) said was that there is a difference between V and B- in which they are pronounced as they would in English.
First and foremost, you should be aware that most teachers (of their own language as a foreign language) have little/no training in phonetics. When one of them tells you that "something sounds really weird" or announces that "we would never say that", you (and they) are on fairly safe ground because they are talking about common usage. When it comes to subtle differences in pronunciation, many (most) speakers are unaware of what they, themselves say (without thinking). They modify sounds (depending on the phonetic context) but are completely unaware that they do so.
In some, I have heard a bit of a w-ness to it as well. One lady, for instance, said the English word river and it sounded like /ree-wer/. Others it always is a b-ish sound. Others, it is a soft v. Some speakers I feel like I hear a slight difference between the V/B at the beginning of a word and V/B in the middle of a word (or between vowels or whatever).
As a side note, I have definitely heard some Britons pronounce th as v. Mother is pronounced muh-ver, either is pronounced ee-ver. These same people will pronounce th as f at the end of words...that is, mouth becomes mowf...quite neat really.
As an English speaker, the v and f sounds are very related. Of fat, vat, and bat...bat sounds more different than the other two. Vat and fat sound almost the same. It's almost like the difference between our voiced th (as in "the") and our voiceless th (as in "thin").
I'm a-rambling now.
I am taking Spanish from University.
We have a Spanish department and I clarified this issue with them. What the Spanish teachers (from Spain) said was that there is a difference between V and B- in which they are pronounced as they would in English. However, quite a lot of Spanish speakers do not differentiate them but in general, if you are learning the language, you should learn it the correct way mainly so you will be able to write the words properly
