"¿Qué le das a Juan?" - is it correct?
0
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First of all I'm not sure of category - should I put it in "Vocabulary" or "Proof Reading"?
To the point - "¿Qué le das a Juan?" - I found it as translation for "What do you give to John?". Is "le" here on purpose, or by mistake?
2174 views
updated Oct 19, 2009
posted by Behemoth
4 Answers
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Yes, that's correct. Here's a great lesson on using indirect pronouns: 2.3 - Parties with Direct and Indirect Object Pronouns
updated Oct 19, 2009
posted by Stobber
If there is an indirect object, there MUST be an indirect objest pronoun - ALWAYS. I missed this part ;) Thanks. - Behemoth, Oct 19, 2009
1
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Le is correct. its not on purpose it just means to him.
updated Oct 19, 2009
posted by Rey_Mysterio
1
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Yes it is correct.
updated Oct 19, 2009
posted by Rey_Mysterio
0
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So
¿Qué le das a Juan? - correct
¿Qué das a Juan? - incorrect
?
updated Oct 19, 2009
posted by Behemoth
Yes. See my answer for more details. - Stobber, Oct 19, 2009
