the position of an adjective in Spanish

Question

As I'm a beginner in Spanish, I've somewhat taken it for granted that an adjective must follow a noun. However, in the book I've been reading, I found the following phrase:

"(...)se puede ver, siempre en el mismo sitio, una isla de elevados montes y hermosos valles."

Can anyone explain why the order is inversed (why not: montes elevados y valles hermosos) and if it is, how different does it sound in everyday Spanish? What are the reasons (if any) for such an alteration? Or ss it simply because of the literary language used in the book?

Answer 1

answer as before:

http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/105392/when-do-adjectives-precede-the-nouns-in-spanish

Answer 2

In general adjectives come after nouns. In this case: 'montes elevados' or 'elevados montes' doesn't alter the meaning. In a literay language this inversion can sound can soun more poetic.