I have never heard talking/talk about that.

Question

I would like to know which of these sentences is the correct option.

I have never heard talking about that.

I have never heard talk about that.

I would like to know your answers as always. Thank you.

Good Question. - ian-hill, Sep 29, 2009

You can say "I have never heard talk "of" that. - ian-hill, Sep 29, 2009

Answer 1

These are some examples found:

Verbs of perception ( see, hear, watch...etc)+ object+infinitive are used to say that we see, hear... the whole of an action: I saw her paint the wall.

Verbs of perception ( see, hear, watch...etc)+object+-ing form are used to say that we see, hear... an action in progress: I saw her painting the wall.

In that example, it seems to be clear, but with my sentence I find some doubts.

I have never heard talking about that.

I have never heard talk about that.

OK in context of your own examples your sentence could be

First Example:

Verb of perception = heard

object = her, him, anyone, anybody, them, etc

-ing form = talking

Sentence = I have never heard her talking about that.

Second Example:

Verb of perception = heard

object = her, him, anyone, anybody, them, etc

infinitive form = talk

Sentence = I have never heard her talk about that.

Answer 2

Hi Nila

I don't think that I would use either...I think what you might be trying to say would be something similar to:

I haven't heard anything about that

I have never heard talking about that.

I have never heard to talk about that.

Both of these are awkward and, dare I say, incorrect usages of talk. You could say:

I have never heard anyone talking about that

or possibly

I have never heard (any) talk about that

I suppose that this means that you can either hear someone talking (about that) or you can hear the talk (about that), but I don't think that it would be correct to say that you hear talking (about that)

You could also say

I have never heard that talked about

(This was another great question, by the way)

I agree. - --Mariana--, Sep 29, 2009

I do not agree. I do not see how "I have never heard (any) talk about that" differs from Nila's "I have never heard talk about that." - Moe, Sep 29, 2009

Moe in her original post (if you'll notice my line quotes which I pasted from her original question) Nila originally said "I have never heard **to** talk about that" Since I posted this, she has edited her question - Izanoni1, Sep 29, 2009

So yes, I agree with you. Her edited version is the same as what I have suggested - Izanoni1, Sep 29, 2009

Answer 3

I think what may be giving you trouble is the use of the infinitive. It may be that you are expecting the infinitive to be preceded by the marker to, but this is not always necessary in English.

An infinitive is simply the form of the verb that expresses existence or action without reference to person, number or tense and can also function as a noun. In English it is usually the infinitive is usually the first person singular present preceded by the marker to or by another verb form

In the following examples

conjugated verb = in italics

infinitive verb = in bold

make him try [not: make him to try]

can she go [not: can she to go]

I heard her speak [not: I heard her to speak]

Does this help clear up some of the confusion?

Answer 4

In your painting example, there is a reference to a person, namely "her". If you added such a reference to your talking example, it would be correct:

I have never heard her talking about that.

I have never heard her talk about that.

Both are correct, but the second is far more common..

I was thinking the same thing. - --Mariana--, Sep 29, 2009

Answer 5

OK, I am trying to guess when using "gerund" or "infinitive" after a verb of perception. But when I was translating the example I gave you, I was enable to find an explanation. Actually, I cannot realise the difference.

These are some examples found:

Verbs of perception ( see, hear, watch...etc)+ object+infinitive are used to say that we see, hear... the whole of an action: I saw her paint the wall.

Verbs of perception ( see, hear, watch...etc)+object+-ing form are used to say that we see, hear... an action in progress: I saw her painting the wall.

In that example, it seems to be clear, but with my sentence I find some doubts.

I have never heard talking about that.

I have never heard talk about that.

The sense of the sentence is the same as: I haven't heard anything about that

Which is the logical explanation to use the one or the other?

In fact, the two sentences seems to have the same meaning. If you look at the first sentence you can see like an action in progress. "I have never heard talking about that".

And, if you look at the second sentence like the whole of an action, you would say: "I have never heard talk about that".

The sense is exactly the same in the two sentences. Nothing changes although I use "gerund" or I use "infinitive".

Answer 6

Alex.

Yo nunca he oído hablar sobre las ovejas. (I have never heard anyone talk about sheep). (I have mentioned it before, because I know which are the sheep)

Yo nunca he oído hablar de las ovejas. (I have never heard anyone talk of sheep).

Answer 7

¡Hola!, Nila:

Here is a short but interesting web page that I ran across in my research into this question:

In re; The Infinitive

Perhaps there is something in the way this page presents the information that will help you to work your way through this problem. Perhaps it will not help at all.

Recuerdos/Regards

Moe

Good website. I thought that "sleeping is a good thing" was correct. But, now, after reading the page I am thinkig that "to sleep is a good thing" is the correct answer. Was I wrong? - nila45, Sep 29, 2009

Nila, you mischief! Sleeping is a good thing/To sleep is a good thing these are as interchangeable as the talk/talking examples. - Moe, Sep 29, 2009

By the way, it would also be OK to say "Sleep (as a noun) is a good thing". You have said "to sleep" which is the infinitive verb, but it also works in its noun form. - Moe, Sep 29, 2009

OK - nila45, Sep 29, 2009

Answer 8

Sorry, Moe. Then you said these sentences are correct, didn't you?

I have never heard anyone talking about that.

I have never heard anyone talk about that.

Yes, Nila. I believe them to be correct. - Moe, Sep 29, 2009

Both are correct. - ian-hill, Sep 29, 2009

Answer 9

You can say "I have never heard talk of that", but "I have never heard of that" is far more common.

Not really. - ian-hill, Sep 29, 2009

Answer 10

No, Izanoni, I was talking about:

I have never heard anyone talk about that.

This would be correct as well because in this case the definition of talk can be pinned down to mean one of the following: ....

I found this convincing.

Answer 11

In the sentence "I've never heard talk of/about that", the word 'talk' is a noun... it's like the difference between saying

"I'm going to talk with you" and "I'm going to have a talk with you".

Whether you use 'of' or 'about' can make a difference:

"I've never heard talk about sheep" - you have never heard anybody have a conversation where sheep are the topic. Somebody might mention sheep, like "I have just bought this sheep skin rug", where they're talking about the rug, not the sheep it came from.

"I've never heard talk of sheep" - goes one step further, and implies that you've never even heard anybody even mention sheep.

Or of course the opposite, where talk can be like rumour... "there is talk of a fierce storm on the way"

Answer 12

Well, Izanoni, I wanted to guess if the sense of the sentence could change if I put the first sentence or the second sentence. But, it sounds the same.

That apart, I was thinking now that four types of sentences are possible:

I have never heard talking about that.

I really had to think about why this one would be incorrect, and finally, I decided to look talking up in the dictionary. The definition of talking is the act of a person who talks. The reason that this is wrong it is not the act of talking that is heard, it is the result that is heard (i.e. the talk). I will say more about this distinction in a moment.

I have never heard to talk about that.

This one is not possible because you have included the marker to when it is not necessary. I have already spoken about this in a previous response so I will not go into detail here.

I have never heard anyone talking about that.

This one would be OK to say because talking is now referring to the individual(s) in the act of talking (i.e. anyone).

I have never heard anyone talk about that.

This would be correct as well because in this case the definition of talk can be pinned down to mean one of the following:

-give a speech

-have a discussion/conversation

verbally express ideas

If you were to say:

I have never heard talk about that

You would change the word talk to a noun and it would mean

a speech

a discussion

a conversation

idle chatter/gossip

Does this make sense to you?

Yes, it seems to be incomplete without an object. - nila45, Sep 29, 2009

I hope that you mean the final example that uses "talk" as a noun. Is that correct? - Izanoni1, Sep 29, 2009

Answer 13

I have never heard anybody talking [gerund] about that.

Yo nunca he oído a nadie hablando de eso.

I have never heard anybody talk [infinitive] about that.

Yo nunca he oído a nadie hablar de eso.

The first sentence is possible, but the second one also is possible. But I have to admit that the translation sounds better for the first one. Anyway, I am convinced that both of them are possible. Mainly, after reading your answers.

The second is far more common in spoken English. - lorenzo9, Sep 29, 2009

I agree with you, both of these examples are correct and may be used. - Moe, Sep 29, 2009

Answer 14

Well, Izanoni, I wanted to guess if the sense of the sentence could change if I put the first sentence or the second sentence. But, it sounds the same.

That apart, I was thinking now that four types of sentences are possible:

I have never heard talking about that.

I have never heard to talk about that.

I have never heard anyone talking about that.

I have never heard anyone talk about that.

Notice that the second sentence has "to" and the four one hasn't "to". Is it all right?

The first two are incorrect because you don't say who is (not) talking. The "to" should not be used here. - lorenzo9, Sep 29, 2009

I must admit that it is sound better if I put an object, but I wanted to know what are the correct constructions for the sentences.. - nila45, Sep 29, 2009

The 1st 2 examples here are incorrect and would not be used by knowledgeable speakers. - Moe, Sep 29, 2009

The 2nd pair of examples here are correct and are essentially interchangeable. - Moe, Sep 29, 2009

By the way - second...four[th] :) - Behemoth, Sep 29, 2009

Answer 15

I have just seen Ian's answer:

You can say "I have never heard talk "of" that.

He says that it is without "to".

Nila, you edited and changed your initial entry. This reply has lost any meaning and may be misleading. Please do not change initial comments after they have been replied to. - Moe, Sep 29, 2009