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vivo how it is pronounced

0
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it is said that the sound of " v " is like English " b " but here it is like English v, can anyone explain

7724 views
updated SEP 28, 2009
posted by yakzaan

4 Answers

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Actually, the initial "v" is often pronounced as a "b" sound, and the other is something in between "b" and "v". Also, if an initial "v" is preceded by a vovel sound ending the previous word, it's also pronounced as sth in between these two. But I think you'll be understandable whether you pronounce it as "v" or "b" as they are not considered allophones (different sounds) in Spanish.

updated SEP 28, 2009
posted by Issabela
2
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This question has been asked many times (and has been dealt with in a reference article (on Pronunciation of the the Alphabet [although "Pronunciation of Spanish Letters" would have been a better title]).

In English we have three phonemes that are relevant: corresponding to the letter "f" - an unvoiced labiodental affricate corresponding to the letter "v" - a voiced labiodental affricate corresponding to the letter "b" - a voiced bilabial plosive

In Spanish we have two phonemes that are relevant corresponding to the letter "f" - an unvoiced labiodental affricate corresponding to the letter "v" or the letter "b" a voiced bilabial occlusive corresponding to the letter "v" or the letter "b" a voiced bilabial fricative (in certain phonetic contexts) that is an allophone of the preceding.

If one were to revise (the standard) Spanish spelling today, it would be possible to replace all "b"s by "v"s (or vice-versa [or both by some new letter/symbol] and it would , in no way, affect the current pronunciation.

There is no voiced labiodental fricative in Spanish (i.e.a sound like the English "v") If you think you hear a sound like the English "v", you are probably hearing the "voiced bilabial fricative" and (because there is no such sound in English), assuming that it must be a "voiced labiodental affricate" (because that sound is "familiar" to you).

updated SEP 28, 2009
posted by samdie
1
vote

But I think you'll be understandable whether you pronounce it as "v" or "b" as they are not considered allophones (different sounds) in Spanish.

You've got you terminology a bit confused; they are allophones (in Spanish) but not separate phonemes (as in English).

updated SEP 28, 2009
posted by samdie
0
votes

beebo raspberry

updated SEP 28, 2009
posted by pedrototana1
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