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Why does the spelling change when congujating some spanish verbs

Why does the spelling change when congujating some spanish verbs

0
votes

eg Medir to measure: Yo mido ?? what happened here e has been replaced by i why has e been replaced with an i?

eg Vestirse: el se viste again what is happening ?? Why has i appeared instead of the missing e.

I know the gerund and endings change according to the person but this has nothing to do with this rule...does it??

I am new to spanish and I think there is a flaw in my basic understanding of the concept behind such occurrences.

I need to understand the reasoning behind this.

Gracias

dok951

2685 views
updated Sep 15, 2009
posted by dok951

3 Answers

2
votes

These are called "stem changing" verbs. In the present tense, there are three groups of stem-changing verbs:

o > ue (for example, contar)

e > ie (for example, cerrar)

e > i (for example, pedir)

Here are some lessons on this:

Stem Changing Verbs

updated Sep 13, 2009
posted by --Mariana--
Thank you Marianne excellent link now I have a new resource where I can learn - dok951, Sep 13, 2009
5
votes

There is a case for arguing that irregular verbs do not exist; they only appear to be irregular. The "regular" patterns are just our attempts to make sense out of the system - the compulsion of the rational mind to simplify: the framework of regular verb conjugations in any language is merely a set of descriptive observations, not prescriptive rules.

For example, the English verb, "to give", past tense "gave". Is it really irregular? "Gived" is not easy to say, which is probably why it never existed.

Or why does the infinitive "porrere" not exist in Italian? Because it hard to say and that's why it's "porre" instead. In Spanish, the same verb is "poner", so why is the first person singular "pongo" and not "pono"? My feeling is that "pongo" was a natural evolution of pronunciation which happened because the -ng- sound is made on the palate, much closer to where the -o that follows it gets made at the back of the mouth.

It is only because of alphabetic writing that irregular verbs look much more irregular than they truly are. If we focus on language as primarily an oral form of communication, that puts irregular verbs into their proper perspective - a natural development which facilitates efficiency in speech and euphony in hearing.

updated Sep 15, 2009
posted by ocbizlaw
thank you ocbizlaw - dok951, Sep 15, 2009
0
votes

They are called irregular verbs. Just like am, is are, etc. change unlike sleep, sleeps, sleeping, etc. the root with sleep stays the same while the be verbs change. It is what it is. Hope this helps and I am sure that the gurus will weigh in on this soon. smile

updated Sep 15, 2009
posted by Jason7R
If you're going to mention "sleep", then you should also include the irregular past "slept". The other changes that you mention are true for almost all verbs in English. - samdie, Sep 13, 2009
Yes I know. :) - Jason7R, Sep 13, 2009
thank you jason - dok951, Sep 15, 2009