Pretérito e imperfecto de gustar

Question

What is the primary difference in meaning in the usage of the Pretérito and Imperfecto of gustar ?

This question is related to a news article that I saw online. The sentences are as follows:

Destroza un bar porque no le gustaban las aceitunas

Un español de 54 años, enfadado porque no le gustaron las aceitunas que le sirvieron como tapa **. . .**

to put it in some context --- "Destroza un bar porque no le gustaban las aceitunas" is the title of the news article. - dale3, Aug 20, 2009

Answer 1

Destroza un bar porque no le gustaban las aceitunas.Un español de 54 años, enfadado porque no le gustaron las aceitunas que le sirvieron como tapa **.

Smashes bar because he doesn't like olives.

A 54 year old Spaniard, enraged because he did not like the olives that they served him as an hors deourves (snack).

The imperfect is used in the first sentence as there is no ending or beginning time mentioned (not perfected) [to when he liked olives]

In the 2nd sentence we are dealing with a specific moment in the past (when they served him the tapa.) (perfected or completed in the past) [he didn't like olives when they were served to him]

Answer 2

Well, imperfect usually signifies things that happen repeatedly or have no definite end (think about a straight line of events), while preterite usually signifies that an action has been performed and completed (think about a "puncture" in the imperfect's line).

To me, the first line says that the person went to the bar a few times and didn't like the olives, and the second line says that the person went to the bar once and didn't like the olives.

I'm not a native, and I'm still learning, so I may not be entirely correct.

I think you're reading too much into the sentences. - 0074b507, Aug 20, 2009

Probably. I also forgot about the time span rule that you mentioned :o... - freeze10108, Aug 20, 2009