Difference between Este and ÿste
What is the difference between Este and ÿste (one with an accent and one without the accent over the E)?
For example ÿste es mi amigo / ÿsta es mi amiga
Can you use it without the accent on the E, for example: Este es mi amigo / Esta es mi amiga?
What is the difference with using the accent compared to not using the accent?
I hope someone can help me!
Many thanks
Christine
7 Answers
Okay so the directions are:
Este
Oeste
Norte
Sur
Gracias Lazarus!
I thought that "este" was "east" could someone please tell me what east and west are.
We also had a previous discussion about este meaning er or um in conversations. These other meanings were the reply that I had made earlier, then deleted. They seemed rather off topic. I was expecting comments on the use of diacritical accent marks which I see did occur.
I thought that "este" was "east" could someone please tell me what east and west are.
And you are right, but it also means "this":
este = this / east
oeste = west
I thought that "este" was "east" could someone please tell me what east and west are.
It reminds me of how we are consistently lowering rates of "violent crime" and "crime" in this country ... reclassification and declassification.
I've noticed this also.
... but after the latest orthographic revision, the accent is not necessary, unless the sentence is ambiguous.
I hate revisions that lead to less clarity, precision, and specificity. And for what reason? It seems like the prevailing attitude by those that decide is, "Since people are too lazy or too dumb to put accents where they are required, lets remove the requirement in as many places as possible. ... Now are society is a whole lot smarter, because now they don't leave off accents near as much as they did before." I guess the US is not the only place where the "dumbing down of society" is taking place.
It reminds me of how we are consistently lowering rates of "violent crime" and "crime" in this country ... reclassification and declassification. We reclassified things that were considered "violent crime" and now just consider it "crime," where it was already counted anyway. Voilá, all of a sudden our violent crime statistics dropped overnight. Then we take "victimless crimes" (supposedly, drug possession, prostitution, etc.) and declassify them as "crime" for purposes of statistics, and ... AMAZING, crime is on the decline in the US! Aren't we a wonderful society'? We're "reducing" crime!! "Elect us again, and we'll lower it some more!"
I can understand revision in the case of, say, "di", "ti", and "a", all of which used to carry accents, but did not have corresponding non-accented forms. But next they are going to want to remove them from the likes of "dé", "sé", "mí", "él", and "tú" ... "in cases where the sentence is not ambiguous." What ever happened to consistency'? Why open something up to some degree of subjectivity? (To me the sentence may be "ambiguous," but to you it may not be, in some cases.)
The difference is that "este" is an adjective, and "éste" a pronoun, but after the latest orthographic revision, the accent is not necessary, unless the sentence is ambiguous.
Este amigo = This friend (este and this are adjectives)
ÿste es mi amigo = This is my friend (éste and this are pronouns)
