indirect objects - which sentences are correct?
Which sentences are correct, As or Bs? Do I always have to use indirect objects pronouns, or is "a mí", "a mi novia" sufficient?
A) Paco tira la pelota a mí.
B) Paco me tira la pelota a mí.
A) Escribo una carta de amor a mi novia.
B) Le escribo una carta de amor a mi novia.
6 Answers
Thank you all. I'm still a bit confused, but I suppose that coming across more examples in context will help, just as with any other foreign language. I'll have to get used to some peculiarities of Spanish; one day they'll just become more familiar.
Because I found the following examples on http://www.spanishdict.com/reference/grammar/indirect-object-pronouns
Yo le tiro la pelota a usted.
ÿl me compra una rosa para mí.
Mi madre te compró un libro para tí.
Wouldn't "Yo le tiro la pelota. ÿl me compra una rosa. Mi madre te compró un libro." be more correct?
son correctos tus ejemplos Isabela...muy bien
A) Paco tira la pelota a mí.
B) Paco me tira la pelota a mí.
The second is correct (but not the best idea), the first is wrong. Let me give you the rule:
If a direct or indirect object has a "tonic" pronoun (mí, ti, él, ella, usted, nosotros, vosotros, ellos, ellas, ustedes), you must always use the corresponding pronoun me, te, le,... If you want to drop something, it has to be that "a mí", but not the "me".
A) Escribo una carta de amor a mi novia.
B) Le escribo una carta de amor a mi novia.
The first one is not common in spoken Spanish (the second is more usual), but both are correct. The difference is too subtle and complex to explain in grammatical terms, and it is best learnt by speaking to natives.
Wouldn't "Yo le tiro la pelota. ÿl me compra una rosa. Mi madre te compró un libro." be more correct?
As Rodrigo said, they can a bit redundant when they refer to "me", because there is only one "me", but they are perfectly normal and acceptable in literature in third person:
Le di el regalo a tu madre.
After all, "le" can be anyone. If you are wondering why using "le" at all, search for previous posts, because it is called anticipatory pronoun, and English has compulsory one that in Spanish cannot be used because it is too redundant: "It appears that they are not coming" (that "it" is anticipatory, and in Spanish, redundant to the point that it can't even be used).
That "a mí", since it is not necessary, is used for emphasis only.
It seems redundant, but in Spanish it actually sounds better to do it. I would say that neither is incorrect.
Let's see what other people say. I know when I speak Spanish I tend to put the indirect object pronoun in there more often than not - I guess it depends on the situation
Because I found the following examples on http://www.spanishdict.com/reference/grammar/indirect-object-pronouns
Yo le tiro la pelota a usted.
ÿl me compra una rosa para mí.
Mi madre te compró un libro para tí.
Wouldn't "Yo le tiro la pelota. ÿl me compra una rosa. Mi madre te compró un libro." be more correct'
Paco me tira la pelota , if u say "paco me tira la pelota a mi" is redundant
A) Escribo una carta de amor a mi novia.
B) Le escribo una carta de amor a mi novia.
both are good!!!
