Imperativo De Los Verbos Reflexivos
Por favor puede alguien darme un ejemplo de la forma imperativo para los verbos reflexivos por cada persona? Grazias
7 Answers
qfreed said:
irse
informal: (3rd person indicative and 2nd person subj endings)
(tú) vete/ no te vayas ( vosotros) idos/ no os vayáis
formal: (3rd person subj. endings)
(Vd). váyase/ no se vaya ( Vds.) váyanse / no se vayan
You forgot first person plural:
(Nosotros) Vámonos / No nos vayamos
.
qfreed said:
The imperative mood only has one person (2nd), but informal and formal forms which use 2nd person and 3rd person endings.
That is not true. The imperative mood has first, second, and third persons. The first person imperative is in the plural only, and I have given an example above.
The imperative in the third person is in the form of indirect commands, or strong desires. Examples:
¡Viva el rey! (Long live the king!)
¡Que pase el tren! (Let the train pass!)
¡(Que) Dios te bendiga! ([May] God bless you!)
.
[Some grammar articles that I have read consider this third person imperative/indirect command to be the subjunctive mood, but from my study of other languages, I am of the opinion that verbs should be identified by their function rather than their form. For example, the negative version of the imperative mood (negative commands)--the function--takes the subjunctive form (e.g., No te vayas). But that doesn't mean it is no longer the imperative mood. Another example that you have already alluded to (although in a confusing manner, especially for the level of this question): the second person familiar (tú form) imperative (mode/function) in the affirmative takes the form of the third person singular (él form), present indicative active in most verbs (although pronominal verbs retain the second person pronoun). Does that then make the command "¡Come!", third person? No, its function is still second person. Does that then make it present indicative active? No, its mode/function is still imperative, the form it takes is identical to the present indicative active, third person singular. That being said, if someone with more grammatical expertise than I says that indirect commands in Spanish are subjunctive mood and not imperative, I would not argue with them. I think part of the argument hinges on the intention of the speaker, a strong desire or an indirect command.]
.
So, to answer the original question ... el verbo pronominal irse se conjuga en el modo imperativo como así:
(Yo) ******** ---------------------------- (Nosotros) Vámonos / No nos vayamos
(Tú) Vete / No te vayas ------------ (Vosotros) Idos / No os vayáis
(Él/Ud.) Váyase / No se vaya --- (Ellos/Uds.) Váyanse / No se vayan
.
El verbo reflexivo lavarse se conjuga en el modo imperativo como así:
(Yo) ******** -------------------------- (Nosotros) Lavémonos / No nos lavemos
(Tú) Lávate / No te laves -------- (Vosotros) Lavaos / No os lavéis
(Él/Ud.) Lávese / No se lave --- (Ellos/Uds.) Lávense / No se laven
lazarus1907 said:
Grammarians differentiate between morphological and syntactic imperative.
So are you saying that the syntactic imperative is 2nd person only? And that the rest are morphological imperative?
What is your position on the third person, "indirect commands"? Are they morphological imperative or just present subjunctive?
Grammarians differentiate between morphological and syntactic imperative.
(2nd person singular) ¡Calla! / ¡Calle! (2nd person plural) ¡Callad! / ¡Callen!
Using pronominal verbs:
(2nd person singular) ¡Cállate! / ¡Callese! (2nd person plural) ¡Callaos! / ¡Callense!
Notice that the "-d" in the plural "you" is dropped, except in "idos", a form that virtually no one uses, but the RAE insists on keeping.
The traditional position for English would be that "imperative" applies only to commands (directed at the 2nd sing/plu person). for any other person (especially the 1st person plural) the term "hortatory subjunctive" is/was used (a borrowing from the study of Latin grammar). Presumably it was thought that giving a "command" to oneself (or a group that included oneself) did not make much sense but one could "exhort" a group (even if it included oneself) to do something.
Phrases such as "long live the king" (¡viva el rey!) are normally taken to be the usual expressions of wishes/desires (couched in the subjunctive) and as requiring no special explanation.
Sorry, Nick. Of course, you are right. I forgot that the original post said reflexive. Same (reflexive) pronouns in the imperative mood, however. (te, os, se)
irse
informal: (3rd person indicative and 2nd person subj endings)
(tú) vete/ no te vayas ( vosotros) idos/ no os vayáis
formal: (3rd person subj. endings)
(Vd). váyase/ no se vaya ( Vds.) váyanse / no se vayan
The imperative mood only has one person (2nd), but informal and formal forms which use 2nd person and 3rd person endings.
tnx a lot! 
