cual es la diferencia entre la palabra IRAMOS y VAMOS?

0
votes

cual es la diferencia entre la palabra IRAMOS y VAMOS

4349 views
updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by Thomas

11 Answers

0
votes

The imperative (including the present subjunctive forms) is only common in the second person in singular (ej. ¡Cállate! ¡Mira!, etc.). The second person in plural sounds literary (or pretentious), so it is normally replaced by the infinitive or, specially in America, also by the third person in plural (¡Iros a casa! ¡Váyanse a casa!). The first person in plural sounds also too posh, so it is replaced by alternatives like "¡Vamos a baliar! ¿Bailamos'".

I doubt there is a grammatical reason for this, but I'll find out.

updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

Lazarus, I hope you will have time to reply to Rich's question to you (about bailamos versus bailemos), since I would like to hear what you have to say, too. I think I have a "feel" for it, but would like to know if there are any rules or patterns.

updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by 00bacfba
0
votes

Any time. I am glad to help, and I appreciate the compliments. My pacience is almost limitless with polite people.

updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

Thanks lazarus, sorry to lead you down that path, I'll pass on Ralph's book -I've got too much to learn learning the language rather than the history of it! but I appreciate the care in your answers
to myself and to others.

updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by tad
0
votes

In Middle Spanish the form "vamos" was an alternative form of the present subjunctive, along with "vayamos" (both from Latin "vadamus"), so at that time it was used in sentences with this value: No creo que vayamos/vamos. ¡Vámonos!/Vayámonos!. Nowadays, the only subjunctive use left in "vamos" is to make suggestions (imperative), but you cannot use it in sentences like "No creo que...". On the other hand, the form "vayamos" is used for typical subjunctive sentences, but it sounds literary in imperative ones, so each form specialized in one area, so to say. The reason for this split is due to the confluence of similar tense paradigms. For more details, read "A History of the Spanish Language" - Ralph Penny, but it is a pretty technical book.

As I said before, this is an isolated case.

updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

I notice that most hispanoparlantes refrain from using the first person plural imperative, opting instead for the declarative form. Examples would be "bailamos" for "let's dance" instead of "bailemos" or "seguimos adelante" en lugar de "sigamos". I have always assumed that the imperative form sounds pretentious to the native ear. Am I right about this and should I eschew the presumably correct imperative form'

updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by Rich
0
votes

I never noticed until I thought about it after your post. How did that happen -just easier to say'

updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by tad
0
votes

Yes. "Vayamos", interestingly, is rarely used even though it is the proper form.

updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

Instead of vayamos '

updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by tad
0
votes

"Iramos" does not exist in Spanish. If the word is "iremos", it means "we will go".

"Vamos" means "we go", but it has one special additional function that only this word has (for historical reasons): "Let's go".

updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

I am not able to answer your question, but this may help you. Look up ir (go) in the conjugator .

<http://www.wordreference.com/conj/ESverbs.asp'v=ir>

updated JUN 23, 2008
posted by Zoltán