do you normally say:¨¿qué vas a tomar de cenar? ´ or´¿qué vas a pedir de cenar'´

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do you normally say:¨¿qué vas a tomar de cenar? ´ or´¿qué vas a pedir de cenar'´

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updated DIC 12, 2011
posted by maisoncarree

11 Answers

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Qué vas a cenar or Que vas a ordenar para cenar

updated DIC 12, 2011
posted by xicotillo
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Spanish really isn't all that complex/difficult. If you study and know your stuff, you'll be fine smile To me, after studying Spanish for 4-5 years, English seems like an overly simple language in a lot of ways. I think Spanish is a lot more fluid and concise (not to mention beautiful!). Whereas English is quite over-simplified -- sometimes to the point of sounding silly, jeje.

wow so bloody overwhelmed, comparing to spanish, english is such a laid back language

updated DIC 12, 2011
edited by june10
posted by june10
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One more to ruin the picture!!

Here in Argentina is even simplier.

As posed, this is an informal situation, otherwise the question would have been "¿Qué va a pedir de cenar'", implying "usted" (formal) instead of "vos" (for Argentina) or "tú" (for the rest of Spanish speaking countries); in this case, the verb misses the "s" when you use "usted". "Usted" is the formal version of "tú" or our Argentine "vos". This difference does not exist in English.

In such an informal situation, i.e. you and your partner/friend/etc are at a restaurant, you may simply say "¿Qué vas a cenar'" or "¿Qué vas a pedir'" or "¿Qué vas a comer'"; the "tomar" option definitely does not apply in Argentina. "Tomar" in Argentina refers only to drinks.

The questions above are shorter because (i) the verb in the first questions means "have dinner"; and (ii) in the other two questions, it is redundant to add "de cenar" or "para cenar"; it is implied by the situation you are at, that is, you are obviously there because you are about to have dinner.

Anyway, "¿qué vas a pedir de cenar'" is fine here, a bit redundant, but fine.

Hope it helps! Bye!

updated AGO 13, 2008
posted by Laura
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wow so bloody overwhelmed...
comparing to spanish, english is such a laid back language...

updated MAY 22, 2008
posted by maisoncarree
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HI Maison:

We have a difference of culture here. In Spain the word "tomar" is used for BOTH drink and food, indifferently.

So: ¿qué vas a tomar? said in a restaurant definitely means: What are you going to have/order? (both food and drink)

As it appears, in Mexico this is not the case.

The usual wording over here:

¿Qué vas a tomar para cenar?

¿Qué vas a pedir?

As Dunia has pointed out: de cenar sounds strange , and this sentence:

que vas a pedir de tomar.

sounds even inocrrect over here.

But as I said: It is quite obvious that the wording changes. according to the country.

I would have considered your sentences quite perfect (except for the "de" which should have been "para")

updated MAY 22, 2008
posted by 00494d19
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If you say: ¿qué vas a tomar para cenar? nobody will be surprised. The difference between "tomar" and "comer" is very weak. You can use "tomar" for meaning "eat" without problem.

updated MAY 22, 2008
posted by Dunia
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¿qué vas a tomar para cenar? "tomar de cenar" is wrong.
¿qué vas a pedir para cenar? It sounds better than "de cenar"

updated MAY 22, 2008
posted by Dunia
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such a complex language...
thanks mate

updated MAY 21, 2008
posted by maisoncarree
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got it!
so i can say qué vas a pedir de cenar
and
quiero tomar otra cosa

right'

updated MAY 21, 2008
posted by maisoncarree
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so
qué vas a tomar de cenar
definitely is correct'

updated MAY 21, 2008
posted by maisoncarree
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What is it that you want to say in English? Tomar means drink, and pedir means order. Tomar can be used to mean "to eat" in the sense of "tomar el desayuno," but by itself it would be to drink.

updated MAY 21, 2008
posted by 00bacfba