HomeQ&Agustar ( me gusta....)

gustar ( me gusta....)

6
votes

One of the first things i learnt in spanish to say was me gusta.........

I still dont know why it isint gusto............ I have watched the videos many times and I am confused with the linguistic termonology Paralee uses.

She says its to do with the indirect project pronoun. I is (yo) and you is (tu). Why do they then become (me) and (te) respectively when used with the verb gustar?!

So what Im basically asking is when do you use the other forms of gustar like gusto, gustas etc etc. As well as why do we use gust-a for I/he/you likes when it should refer to the third person singular (he/she/usted) likes.

19907 views
updated Aug 14, 2011
posted by jonski
i dont understand either, if u find out, please tell me!!!! ;) :) :) ;) - carlosismylove, Nov 1, 2010

18 Answers

0
votes

Oooh! I think I know this one. Correct me if I'm wrong, but it's one of the weird verbs that reflect the quantity of what is being liked as opposed to the quantity of people doing the liking... ex: Le gusta la fresa. Le gustan las fresas.

updated Nov 1, 2010
posted by heavensf
0
votes

Even if it means its pleasing to me when i say I like football. (football is pleasing to me) this still doesnt make any sense. It is pleasing to ME and me is I.

'me' is not 'I' (at least not in any grammatical sense).

The construction is simplicity, itself. The conjugated form of the verb is determined by the subject of the verb/sentence.

I am pleasing to him (Le gusto a él.) You are pleasing to him (Le gustas a él.) He/she/it is pleasing to him (Le gusta a él.) We are pleasing to him (Le gustamos a él.) Y'all are pleasing to him (Le gustais a él.) They are pleasing to him (Le gustan a él.)

In every case the verb is conjugated according to the subject. In every case the "le" and "a él" remain the same because (in these examples) it is always "to him". Were it "pleasing to us" one would replace the "le" by "nos" and the "a él" by "a nosotros", etc., etc.

P.S. The "a él" and the "a nosotros" are optional.

updated Nov 1, 2010
posted by samdie
0
votes

I still feel like ive missed something here, even after reading these threads. Why is the third person single tense verb ending -a used? Even if it means its pleasing to me when i say I like football. (football is pleasing to me) this still doesnt make any sense. It is pleasing to ME and me is I. How can this fit into the third person single tense?!

When talking to a close friend (tu) could you say Te gustas pollo? or would it still be te gusta pollo?

updated Nov 1, 2010
posted by jonski
"te gusta pollo"-- "chicken pleases you", not "you please chicken" or "chicken please you" - Stadt, Nov 1, 2010
i feel like im missing something 2! no worrys - carlosismylove, Nov 1, 2010
Look at the football sentence- you are saying football is pleasing to me, you conjugated to the third person single (is) not the first person (am). - Stadt, Nov 1, 2010
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