HomeQ&ASeria mejor que lo lleve a un especialista cuando lleguen a Paris

Seria mejor que lo lleve a un especialista cuando lleguen a Paris

1
vote

Hi. Could someone explain the why in the phrase below the present subjunctive of llevar is used with the conditional tense?

Seria mejor que lo lleve a un especialista cuando lleguen a Paris

I thought that it would have to be in the imperfect mood.

The phrase is from a book by Jose Manuel Fajardo, Mi nombre es Jamaica.

Thank you.

3359 views
updated MAY 25, 2010
edited by 00494d19
posted by danr01

4 Answers

2
votes

Seria mejor que lo lleve a un especialista cuando lleguen a Paris.

Sería (conditional) mejor que (a phrase that sets up for the present subjunctive)....

"It would be best to bring him to a specialist when you arrive in Paris."

updated MAY 25, 2010
posted by --Mariana--
Thank you. I didn't realise that the two could be used together like this. - danr01, MAY 25, 2010
Bring? Take? I guess we are never going to agree on this one, hehe. - Eddy, MAY 25, 2010
Marianne you forgot subjunctive after cuando. - Eddy, MAY 25, 2010
Eddy - depends who's talking. If speaker is in Paris, then "bring", if not then "take". - geofc, MAY 25, 2010
We would still say take if the speaker is in Paris, however, it would be now you are in Paris. - Eddy, MAY 25, 2010
1
vote

Thanks for the replys everyone.

Geofc, I take your point regarding the difference between moods and tenses. I still have a lot to learn.

What confuses me is why the phrase was not formulated:

Seria mejor que lo llevara a un especialista cuando lleguen a Paris.

I was always told that if the conditional mood is used then the subjuctive that follows is in the imperfect or pluperfect mood but maybe there is a degree of flexibility, I was taught incorrectly or have got confused along the way.

The author is a native Spanish speaker, born in Granada and it is a recent publication.

updated MAY 25, 2010
posted by danr01
0
votes

Hi Jamaica

You need a better grip on grammatical terms, not just for the sake of it but to help you to understand what's going on and what people are saying to you in the way of explanation.

You are clearly confused between moods and tenses; "conditional" is not a tense, it's a mood while the "imperfect" is a tense not a mood.

Don't think of this as a criticism. What I'm looking at is how you can improve your understanding.

By the way, how could I possibly criticize you when our own dictionary, right here, gives you what it apparently refers to as a "complete conjugation" which mixes moods and tenses with no explanation and doesn't even include the conditional?? (I looked up "llevar" as an appropriate sample.) Of course, if you're a dedicated researcher, you can drill down to another level and get it all.

updated MAY 25, 2010
edited by geofc
posted by geofc
0
votes

The way I have been taught, I would have thought the imperfect subjunctive were needed. I have always seen it that way too.

updated MAY 25, 2010
posted by 003487d6
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