Is is possible to say: Me lo(s)/la(s) gusta(n)/encanta(n)?
¡Hola! En la clase de español este año, aprendí cómo se dice: I gave it to him, She had it for a week, et cetera. Me pregunto si se dice: Me lo(s)/la(s) gusta(n)/encanta(n). ¿Es correcto u posible? Un amigo de la prima de mi mamá me dijo que no lo es -- pero él no sabe español completamente. ¿Algiuen sabe? Pues, ¡le doy gracias por su ayuda! 
5 Answers
Your question got me thinking about the verb "gustar" . . .
So, I did some research in a Spanish grammar book that I recently purchased and here's what I discovered.
Apparently there are some verbs that require the use of an indirect object but with which a direct object is impossible. The two examples given in my book were gustar and caer bien.
Your asking about the use of lo(s)/la(s) with the verb gustar appears to me to be asking about using lo(s)/la(s) as a direct object (and not as an article). And, according to my Spanish grammar book, a direct object cannot be used with gustar.
I hope that someone will correct me if I'm wrong about this!
It is grammatically incorrect to use an article (lo/la/los/las) with the words encantar and gustar. You just have to write the whole thing out.
Me encanta esta pelicula.
Me gustas tu.
¿Le gustaron los libros?
A. "Le gusta el tiempo de aqui" B. "No me lo gusta para nada. Es muy caliente."
You wouldn't include the lo(s)/la(s) because it sounds much less authentic. In the McDonald's commercials that say, I'm lovin' it the Spanish translation is me encanta... there is no article included, but why I can't fully explain.
Nunca he visto a una vez cuando hubo un pronombre del objeto directo connectado a "gustar" y no creo que puede occurir, pero a mí es mi opinión.
