HomeQ&AIs is possible to say: Me lo(s)/la(s) gusta(n)/encanta(n)?

Is is possible to say: Me lo(s)/la(s) gusta(n)/encanta(n)?

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¡Hola! En la clase de español este año, aprendí cómo se dice: I gave it to him, She had it for a week, et cetera. Me pregunto si se dice: Me lo(s)/la(s) gusta(n)/encanta(n). ¿Es correcto u posible? Un amigo de la prima de mi mamá me dijo que no lo es -- pero él no sabe español completamente. ¿Algiuen sabe? Pues, ¡le doy gracias por su ayuda! grin

1582 views
updated MAY 27, 2010
edited by june10
posted by june10

5 Answers

0
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Your question got me thinking about the verb "gustar" . . .

So, I did some research in a Spanish grammar book that I recently purchased and here's what I discovered.

Apparently there are some verbs that require the use of an indirect object but with which a direct object is impossible. The two examples given in my book were gustar and caer bien.

Your asking about the use of lo(s)/la(s) with the verb gustar appears to me to be asking about using lo(s)/la(s) as a direct object (and not as an article). And, according to my Spanish grammar book, a direct object cannot be used with gustar.

I hope that someone will correct me if I'm wrong about this!

updated MAY 27, 2010
posted by Pajaro44
Pues pajarito cual fue el exemplo que necesita cual?" - geofc, MAY 23, 2010
geofc, I'm not sure I understand your question. My reference book stated that both **gustar** and **caer bien** require the use of an indirect object but that neither of those verbs can have a **direct object**. - Pajaro44, MAY 23, 2010
Muchas gracias! Me ayudó mucha! :) - june10, MAY 27, 2010
0
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It is grammatically incorrect to use an article (lo/la/los/las) with the words encantar and gustar. You just have to write the whole thing out. Me encanta esta pelicula. Me gustas tu. ¿Le gustaron los libros? grin

updated MAY 27, 2010
posted by slkey
Ahhh, ya veo ahora. Gracias! :) - june10, MAY 27, 2010
De nada. :D - slkey, MAY 27, 2010
0
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A. "Le gusta el tiempo de aqui" B. "No me lo gusta para nada. Es muy caliente."

updated MAY 27, 2010
posted by geofc
thanks! - june10, MAY 27, 2010
0
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You wouldn't include the lo(s)/la(s) because it sounds much less authentic. In the McDonald's commercials that say, I'm lovin' it the Spanish translation is me encanta... there is no article included, but why I can't fully explain.

updated MAY 27, 2010
posted by Vince_Peña
Thanks! And yeah, I've always wondered that, too. . . - june10, MAY 23, 2010
0
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Nunca he visto a una vez cuando hubo un pronombre del objeto directo connectado a "gustar" y no creo que puede occurir, pero a mí es mi opinión.

updated MAY 23, 2010
posted by mcdavis99
Gracias! :) - june10, MAY 23, 2010
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