HomeQ&AWhy are there two ways to conjugate verbs in the imperfect subjunctive? Is there any difference between the two, or would you use one in one situation, and the other in another?
Why are there two ways to conjugate verbs in the imperfect subjunctive? Is there any difference between the two, or would you use one in one situation, and the other in another?
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If there is a difference, then could you give example sentences using each?
2216 views
updated ENE 31, 2010
posted by jwaring11
2 Answers
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One is used widely in speech in Spain, Latin America, and South America. Another is used more in written language in Spain.
This link could help
updated ENE 31, 2010
posted by hanran
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Use -iera forms.
updated ENE 31, 2010
posted by Yayayayaya
